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Hi Experts 1) Disneys variable costs are 30% of sales.

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Hi Experts

1) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company's net income increase?

A. $18,000
B. $6,000
C. $28,000
D. $12,000



2) Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing?

A. Music store specializing in organ sales
B. Hardware store
C. Farm implement dealership
D. Antique shop



3) These are selected account balances on December 31, 2008.



Land (location of the corporation's office building) $150,000
Land (held for future use) 225,000
Corporate Office Building 900,000
Inventory 300,000
Equipment 675,000
Office Furniture 150,000
Accumulated Depreciation 450,000



What is the net amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

A. $1,950,000
B. $1,425,000
C. $1,650,000
D. $2,400,000



4) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:


Income Statement Balance Sheet
Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr.
Totals $58,000 $48,000 $34,000 $44,000



To enter the net income (or loss) for the period into the above worksheet requires an entry to the __________.

A. income statement debit column and the balance sheet credit column
B. balance sheet debit column and the balance sheet credit column
C. income statement credit column and the balance sheet debit column
D. income statement debit column and the income statement credit column



5) Balance sheet accounts are considered to be __________.

A. temporary stockholders’ accounts
B. nominal accounts
C. permanent accounts
D. capital accounts



6) Which one of the following is a product cost?

A. Indirect labor
B. Advertising costs
C. Office salaries
D. Sales person’s salaries



7) Which one of the following items is not generally used in preparing a statement of cash flows?

A. Adjusted trial balance
B. Additional information
C. Comparative balance sheets
D. Current income statement



8) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.

A. appraisal value
B. selling price
C. list price
D. exchange price paid



9) Multinational corporations __________.

A. are required to use international accounting standards
B. are firms that conduct their operations in more than one country through subsidiaries, divisions, or branches in foreign countries
C. are U.S. companies that trade their securities on the exchanges in other countries
D. are U.S. companies that sell goods and services in other countries



10) "Generally accepted" in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.

A. are proven theories of accounting
B. have been approved by the Internal Revenue Service
C. have been approved for use by the managements of business firms
D. have substantial authoritative support



11) What is the preparation of reports for each level of responsibility in the company’s organization chart called?

A. Static reporting
B. Exception reporting
C. Master budgeting analysis
D. Responsibility reporting



12) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?

A. Beer
B. Selling either results in the same additional income for the company
C. It should sell an equal quantity of both
D. Wine



13) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company's worksheet reflects the following totals:


Income Statement Balance Sheet
Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr.
Totals $58,000 $48,000 $34,000 $44,000



Closing entries are necessary for __________.

A. permanent accounts only
B. both permanent and temporary accounts
C. permanent or real accounts only
D. temporary accounts only



14) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to __________.

A. provide information about the investing and financing activities during a period
B. provide information about the cash receipts and cash payments during a period
C. facilitate banking relationships
D. prove that revenues exceed expenses if there is a net income


15) Without trade, __________.

A. a country is better off because it will have to learn to be self-sufficient without trade
B. a country can still benefit from international specialization
C. interdependence is more extensive than it would be with trade
D. a country's production possibilities frontier is also its consumption possibilities frontier



16) The general term for market structures that fall somewhere in-between monopoly and perfect competition is __________.

A. incomplete markets
B. oligopoly markets
C. monopolistically competitive markets
D. imperfectly competitive markets



17) When a firm sells a good or a service, the sale contributes to the nation’s income __________.

A. only if the buyer of the good or service is a household
B. whether the buyer of the good or a service is a household, another firm, or the government
C. We have to know whether the item being sold is a good or a service in order to answer the question
D. only if the buyer of the good or service is a household or another firm



18) The price of a good that prevails in a world market is called the

A. absolute price.
B. comparative price.
C. world price.
D. relative price.



19) One characteristic of an oligopoly market structure is:

A. firms in the industry are typically characterized by very diverse product lines.
B. products typically sell at a price that reflects their marginal cost of production.
C. the actions of one seller have no impact on the profitability of other sellers.
D. firms in the industry have some degree of market power.



20) Lucy starts her own psychiatric practice, but her expenditures to open the practice exceed her income. Lucy is a __________.

A. saver who demands money from the financial system
B. borrower who demands money from the financial system
C. borrower who supplies money to the financial system
D. saver who supplies money to the financial system



21) Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is __________.

A. the value to Maurice of the option he would have chosen had Option B not been available
B. the value to Maurice of Options A, C and D combined
C. $300
D. $100


22) In the market for foreign-currency exchange in the open economy macroeconomic model, the amount of net capital outflow represents the quantity of dollars __________.

A. supplied for the purpose of selling assets domestically
B. supplied for the purpose of buying assets abroad
C. demanded for the purpose of importing foreign goods and services
D. demanded for the purpose of buying U.S. net exports of goods and services



23) Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze __________.

A. short-run fluctuations in the economy
B. the effects of macroeconomic policy on the prices of individual goods
C. productivity and economic growth
D. the long-run effects of international trade policies



24) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.

A. inflation targeting
B. the monetary policy reaction lag
C. the sacrifice ratio dilemma
D. the time inconsistency of policy



25) The principal lag for monetary policy __________.

A. and fiscal policy is the time it takes to implement policy
B. and fiscal policy is the time it takes for policy to change spending
C. is the time it takes for policy to change spending. The principal lag for fiscal policy is the time it takes to implement it
D. is the time it takes to implement policy. The principal lag for fiscal policy is the time it takes for policy to change spending



26) Many U.S. business leaders argue that the current state of U.S. net exports is the result of __________.

A. U.S. export subsidies.
B. free trade policies of foreign governments.
C. unfair foreign competition.
D. unproductive U.S. workers.



27) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?

A. Nominal GDP values production at current prices, whereas real GDP values production at constant prices.
B. Nominal GDP values production at constant prices, whereas real GDP values production at current prices.
C. Nominal GDP consistently underestimates the value of production, whereas real GDP consistently overestimates the value of production.
D. Nominal GDP values production at market prices, whereas real GDP values production at the cost of the resources used in the production process
28) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?

A. intelligence tests
B. integrity evaluations
C. behavioral assessment
D. work sampling
E. aptitude tests



29) When a company establishes technology leadership by pioneering unique products or services that command premium prices, it has benefited from a:

A. High-cost strategy
B. High-price strategy
C. Differentiation strategy
D. Low-cost strategy
E. Diversification strategy



30) A leader is:

A. Someone with authority over others
B. The top level manager in a firm or business
C. Someone well-respected by others
D. A strategic level manager
E. Someone who influences others to attain goals



31) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.

A. using the interview process
B. using a written test
C. using a performance simulation test
D. having them spend a day in the office
E. administering an IQ test



32) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:

A. To develop an organization wide policy on sexual harassment
B. To establish a means for ongoing training
C. To act immediately when employees complain of sexual harassment
D. To establish a formal complaint procedure
E. To establish a performance appraisal system



33) Japanese manufacturers' kaizen (continuous improvement) programs enable them to maintain:

A. A strategic alliance
B. A homogeneous workforce
C. Positive working relationships with all employees
D. Larger, faster facilities
E. A Learning advantage over their competition



34) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:

A. Population density
B. Financial subsidy
C. Philanthropic contributions
D. Espionage activity
E. Productivity



35) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:

A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Controlling
D. Goal Coordination
E. Planning



36) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:

A. Six Sigma Quality
B. Organic
C. Mechanistic
D. ISO 9000
E. Total quality integration



37) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:

A. Management teams
B. Transnational teams
C. Self-managed teams
D. Self-designing teams
E. Parallel teams



38) Which of these represent skills that managers need?

A. Interpersonal & communication, conceptual & decision making and professional
B. Interpersonal, quantitative, and professional
C. Conceptual & decision making, professional and technical
D. Professional, technical and interpersonal & communication
E. Technical, interpersonal & communication and conceptual & decision making



39) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:

A. Intrapreneurship
B. Social experimentation
C. Entrepreneurship
D. Business incubating
E. Independence



40) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?

A. Collaboration
B. Effectiveness
C. Competitiveness
D. Innovation
E. Knowledge management



41) Having individuals actually do the job they are applying for as a test to see if they can do it is __________.

A. an approach with low reliability
B. a formal means of screening candidates
C. an approach with high reliability
D. an informal means of screening candidates
E. an approach with high face validity


42) Thirty patients are selected from a filing cabinet containing 812 patient folders by choosing every 27th patient folder. Which sampling method is this?

A. Cluster sample
B. Simple random sample
C. Systematic sample
D. Stratified sample



43) Use the following table to answer question:


P(S | W) is approximately _____.

A. .12
B. .58
C. .40
D. .30



44) Sampling error can be reduced by __________.

A. increasing the sample size
B. none of the these affect sampling error
C. utilizing simple random samples
D. decreasing the sample size



45) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income.

Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with
Y = number of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and
X = size of police force in each city (thousands of police)?

A. Autocorrelation.
B. Positive slope (due to city size).
C. High R2 (due to city size).
D. No correlation.



46) In a random sample of 810 women employees, it is found that 81 would prefer working for a female boss. The width of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion of women who prefer a female boss is _____.

A. ± .0288
B. ± .0196
C. ± .0105
D. ± .0207



47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.

For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.

A. 4.75
B. 3.03
C. 4.55
D. 3.75


48) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571.

Which conclusion is not correct?

A. The absolute annual growth (in dollars per share) is increasing.
B. At the end of year 3 the stock price would be nearly $80.
C. Few investments could match the astounding growth rate.
D. The stock's true intrinsic value is $4.12.



49) Suppose the estimated quadratic model Yt = 500 + 20 t - t2 is the best-fitting trend of sales of XYZ Inc. using data for the past twenty years (t = 1, 2,.., 20).

Which statement is incorrect?

A. Sales are increasing by about 20 units per year.
B. Latest year sales are no better than in year zero.
C. The turning point would be in period 10.
D. The trend was higher in year 10 than in year 20.



50) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?

A. The impact of production and staffing plans cuts across several functional areas of the firm.
B. Production and staffing plans attempt to achieve several objectives, all of which must be consistent with one another.
C. When production and staffing plans are made, aggregation can be performed only along two dimensions: products and time.
D. Production and staffing plans specify production rates, workforce levels, and inventory holdings, but do not account for capacity limitations because they are aggregated.



51) Companies using lean systems generally have:

A. suppliers who are low-cost producers.
B. many suppliers to ensure that material shortages never occur.
C. suppliers that are located nearby to decrease delivery lead time.
D. suppliers that are willing to accept short-term contracts.



52) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?

A. Process variation was not zero, as expected.
B. The engineering parameter for variance is unknown.
C. The engineers were underpaid for their work.
D. There was insufficient preliminary sampling.


53) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?

A. saves money
B. few types of off-the-shelf software are available, thus limiting confusion
C. saves time
D. company will know what it is getting
E. software can be tried out



54) A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.

A. procedures
B. hardware
C. database
D. network
E. software



55) The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.

A. None of these
B. Globalization 1.0
C. Globalization 2.0
D. Globalization 3.0



56) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?

A. all of these are true
B. connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time
C. exchange knowledge
D. produce and sell goods and services
E. access information, services, and entertainment



57) Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The Internet has increased individuals’ privacy
B. An individual’s right to privacy is absolute
C. An individual’s right to privacy supersedes the needs of society
D. Advances in information technologies have not affected individual privacy
E. It is difficult to determine and enforce privacy regulations


58) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?

A. Structured and management control
B. Semistructured and strategic planning
C. Structured and operational control
D. Semistructured and management control
E. Unstructured and operational control



59) Information-based industries are most susceptible to which one of Porter’s five forces?

A. rivalry among existing firms in an industry
B. threat of substitute products
C. bargaining power of suppliers
D. bargaining power of customers



60) Which of the following is not a reason that managers need IT support?

A. Decision makers are often in different locations
B. Need to access remote information sources
C. Number of alternatives are decreasing
D. Decisions must typically be made under time pressure
E. Decisions are becoming more complex



61) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.

A. Multidimensional data analysis, data mining
B. Multidimensional data analysis, neural networks
C. Multidimensional data analysis, structured query language
D. Data mining, multidimensional data analysis
E. Data mining, expert system



62) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:

A. Operations employees were able to access manufacturing process details at their workstations
B. The company gained flexibility in manufacturing products
C. Integrated the company’s business functions
D. Company was able to maintain its original business processes
E. ERP system connected the company’s global operations


63) At what rate must $400 be compounded annually for it to grow to $716.40 in 10 years?

A. 8%
B. 7%
C. 6%
D. 5%



64) Exchange rate risk:

A. doesn’t affect trades made in US Dollars.
B. has been phased out due to recent international legislation.
C. arises from the fact that the spot exchange rate on a future date is a random variable.
D. applies only to certain types of domestic businesses.



65) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.

A. fixed
B. current
C. permanent
D. spontaneous



66) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:

A. eliminate different financial risks.
B. eliminate judgment factors.
C. eliminate different business risks.
D. eliminate competitive factors.



67) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:

A. creditors.
B. investors
C. common and preferred stockholders.
D. shareholders.



68) Forward rates are quoted:

A. on financial statements
B. by the FDIC
C. in direct form and at a premium or discount
D. in an indirect form
E. daily



69) Mortgage bonds:

A. can only be issued by financial institutions.
B. usually pay little or no interest.
C. are a type of debenture.
D. are secured by a lien on real property.



70) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)

A. -$150
B. $900
C. $490
D. $570



71) Which of the following best represents operating income?

A. Income from discontinued operations
B. Earnings before interest and taxes
C. Income after financing activities
D. Income from capital gains



72) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.

A. dividends paid
B. original amount invested
C. annual interest rate and number of compounding periods
D. rate of return
E. starting value



73) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?

A. 13.6%
B. 12.5%
C. 36.13%
D. 8.0%



74) You hold a portfolio with the following securities:


Security Percent of Portfolio Beta Return
X Corporation 20% 1.35 14%
Y Corporation 35% .95 10%
Z Corporation 45% .75 8%



Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.

A. 9.9%, .94
B. 9.9%, 1.02
C. 10.67%, 1.02
D. 34.4%, .94



75) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?

A. $6.00
B. $15.00
C. $37.50
D. $16.67


76) When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:

A. pricing is to promotion.
B. store location is to sales force selection.
C. branding is to pricing.
D. personal selling is to mass selling.
E. production is to marketing.



77) In an effort to increase its total sales, Champion has started exporting its spark plugs for use by several German auto producers. Champion is pursuing a _____ opportunity.

A. market development
B. product development
C. diversification
D. mass marketing
E. market penetration



78) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?

A. the economic-buyer theory
B. needs
C. psychographics
D. competitive advantage
E. reference groups



79) Economists' economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.

A. consumers only want the cheapest price
B. consumers should purchase only low-priced products
C. demographic data are very useful for predicting consumer behavior
D. consumers always make rational decisions
E. buyers logically compare choices in order to maximize their satisfaction



80) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:

A. Place.
B. Price.
C. Promotion.
D. Product.
E. People.



81) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:

A. market planning.
B. management by objective.
C. marketing programming.
D. marketing strategy planning.
E. strategic (management) planning.



82) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:

A. make the most efficient use of the country's resources.
B. minimize inflation.
C. satisfy consumer needs as they--the consumers--see them.
D. provide each person with an equal share of the economic output.
E. achieve an annual growth rate of at least 10 percent.



83) Which of the following is a business or organizational customer?

A. All of these are business and organizational customers.
B. producers of goods or services.
C. a retailer.
D. a wholesaler.
E. a government agency.



84) Analysis of demographic dimensions:

A. only considers age.
B. is the most important step to successful segmentation.
C. considers income and sex, but not age.
D. is the most effective way to identify unmet consumer needs.
E. can be used along with analysis of other dimensions to identify attractive target markets.



85) "Positioning":

A. eliminates the need for judgment in strategy planning.
B. applies to new products--but not existing products.
C. helps strategy planners see how customers view competitors' offerings.
D. is concerned with obtaining the best shelf space in retail outlets.
E. is useful for combining but not for segmenting.



86) When evaluating macro-marketing:

A. one must consider the society’s role in the marketing system.
B. the evaluation is necessarily subjective.
C. the best approach is to consider the profit generated by individual firms within the overall system.
D. one must determine how efficiently the society's resources are used.
E. one must consider each individual firm's role in the marketing system.



87) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.

A. Customer relationship management (CRM)
B. Brand familiarity
C. Positioning
D. Market scanning
E. Market segmentation



88) The tort of palming off involves:

A. Representing one’s own goods to be those of a competitor.
B. Knowingly selling goods that are defective.
C. Blaming another for one’s own actions and communicating that blame to at least one other person.
D. Failing to credit another for that other person’s legal accomplishments.
E. Making false statements about the goods of another.



89) In a criminal proceeding, what is the difference between an indictment and an information?

A. An indictment requires proof beyond a reasonable doubt, but an information does not.
B. The defendant is charged with a crime in an indictment, but not in an information.
C. Guilt or innocence is determined in an indictment, but not in an information.
D. A grand jury issues an indictment, but does not issue an information.



90) Product disparagement differs from defamation of a nonpublic figure in that:

A. Intent is only required in a disparagement case.
B. Intent is required for the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.
C. Intent is required for the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.
D. Publication to a third party is required in the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.
E. Publication to a third party is required in the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.



91) What type of commercial speech did the U.S. Supreme Court say was protected in the Greater New Orleans Broadcasting Association, Inc. v. United States case?

A. Information on how to build a bomb.
B. Information on gambling and lotteries.
C. Obscene speech.
D. Information about child pornography.



92) In which of the following are these steps of a criminal case listed in the correct order?

A. Arrest, indictment, trial, arraignment
B. Arraignment, arrest, trial, indictment
C. Arrest, indictment, arraignment, trial
D. Indictment, arraignment, arrest, trial
E. Arrest, arraignment, indictment, trial
93) Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship of law and ethics?

A. Depending on the circumstances, the law can require a higher, lower, or the same standard of conduct as ethics demands.
B. In some cases the law will require a higher standard of conduct than ethics, but never vice versa.
C. In some cases ethics will require a higher standard of conduct than the law, but never vice versa.
D. The legal requirements will almost always be the same as the ethical requirement because the law is based on the ethical standards.



94) An agent’s obligation to perform in accordance with the terms of the agency arrangement is the agent’s duty of:

A. Performance.
B. Nonbreach.
C. Indemnification.
D. Loyalty.
E. Obedience.



95) Generally, which of the following statements relating to contractual capacity is correct?

A. Minors make void contracts.
B. People who have been adjudicated insane make voidable contracts.
C. People with no competence make voidable contracts.
D. People with limited competence make void contracts.
E. Persons with full competence make enforceable contracts.



96) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:

A. The secured party gets to take some other property as collateral so his entire debt is secured.
B. The secured party is unsecured for the entire debt.
C. The secured party loses the excess of debt over the value of the security.
D. The secured party is unsecured for the excess of debt over the value of the security.
E. The secured party is still secured for the entire debt owed him.



97) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?

A. Conventions, treaties, comity, customs
B. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity
C. Conventions, comity, customs, general principles of law
D. Treaties, customs, general principles of law, judicial decisions and teachings
E. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity



98) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?

A. China
B. Ecuador
C. Mexico
D. Canada
E. Japan



99) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.

A. Mexico, Venezuela
B. Great Britain, Paraguay
C. Mexico, Canada
D. Canada, Mexico
E. Canada, Venezuela



100) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.

A. $2; about 25
B. About $2; about 15
C. Less than $1; about 40
D. Less than $1; about 25
E. Less than $1; about 15

Brittany :

1 - B (6,000)

Customer:

brittany are you doing the multiple questions now

Brittany :

Yes, the chat cut off at 25 though

Brittany :

question 25

Customer:

so do you want me to copy it here again

Brittany :

That would help...Let me get these started for now!

Customer:

ok i will send the rest here

Brittany :

2 - B Hardware store

Brittany :

3 - C(NNN) NNN-NNNN/p>

Brittany :

4 - C Income credit/balance debit

Brittany :

5 - C permanent

Brittany :

6 - A indirect labor

Customer:

26) Many U.S. business leaders argue that the current state of U.S. net exports is the result of __________.


 


A. U.S. export subsidies.


B. free trade policies of foreign governments.


C. unfair foreign competition.


D. unproductive U.S. workers.


 


 


 


27) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?


 


A. Nominal GDP values production at current prices, whereas real GDP values production at constant prices.


B. Nominal GDP values production at constant prices, whereas real GDP values production at current prices.


C. Nominal GDP consistently underestimates the value of production, whereas real GDP consistently overestimates the value of production.


D. Nominal GDP values production at market prices, whereas real GDP values production at the cost of the resources used in the production process


28) Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive complexity?


 


A. intelligence tests


B. integrity evaluations


C. behavioral assessment


D. work sampling


E. aptitude tests


 


 


 


29) When a company establishes technology leadership by pioneering unique products or services that command premium prices, it has benefited from a:


 


A. High-cost strategy


B. High-price strategy


C. Differentiation strategy


D. Low-cost strategy


E. Diversification strategy


 


 


 


30) A leader is:


 


A. Someone with authority over others


B. The top level manager in a firm or business


C. Someone well-respected by others


D. A strategic level manager


E. Someone who influences others to attain goals


 


 


 


31) The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by __________.


 


A. using the interview process


B. using a written test


C. using a performance simulation test


D. having them spend a day in the office


E. administering an IQ test


 


 


 


32) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:


 


A. To develop an organization wide policy on sexual harassment


B. To establish a means for ongoing training


C. To act immediately when employees complain of sexual harassment


D. To establish a formal complaint procedure


E. To establish a performance appraisal system


 


 


 


33) Japanese manufacturers' kaizen (continuous improvement) programs enable them to maintain:


 


A. A strategic alliance


B. A homogeneous workforce


C. Positive working relationships with all employees


D. Larger, faster facilities


E. A Learning advantage over their competition


 


 


 


34) To be competitive in a global economy, Europeans must increase their level of:


 


A. Population density


B. Financial subsidy


C. Philanthropic contributions


D. Espionage activity


E. Productivity


 


 


 


35) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:


 


A. Organizing


B. Staffing


C. Controlling


D. Goal Coordination


E. Planning


 


 


 


36) One of the most important contributors to total quality management has been the introduction of statistical tools to analyze the causes of product defects in an approach called:


 


A. Six Sigma Quality


B. Organic


C. Mechanistic


D. ISO 9000


E. Total quality integration


 


 


 


37) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:


 


A. Management teams


B. Transnational teams


C. Self-managed teams


D. Self-designing teams


E. Parallel teams


 


 


 


38) Which of these represent skills that managers need?


 


A. Interpersonal & communication, conceptual & decision making and professional


B. Interpersonal, quantitative, and professional


C. Conceptual & decision making, professional and technical


D. Professional, technical and interpersonal & communication


E. Technical, interpersonal & communication and conceptual & decision making


 


 


 


39) The pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals is called:


 


A. Intrapreneurship


B. Social experimentation


C. Entrepreneurship


D. Business incubating


E. Independence


 


 


 


40) Which of these refers to the practices aimed at discovering and harnessing an organization's intellectual resources?


 


A. Collaboration


B. Effectiveness


C. Competitiveness


D. Innovation


E. Knowledge management


 


 


 


41) Having individuals actually do the job they are applying for as a test to see if they can do it is __________.


 


A. an approach with low reliability


B. a formal means of screening candidates


C. an approach with high reliability


D. an informal means of screening candidates


E. an approach with high face validity


 


 


42) Thirty patients are selected from a filing cabinet containing 812 patient folders by choosing every 27th patient folder. Which sampling method is this?


 


A. Cluster sample


B. Simple random sample


C. Systematic sample


D. Stratified sample


 


 


 


43) Use the following table to answer question:


 


 


P(S | W) is approximately _____.


 


A. .12


B. .58


C. .40


D. .30


 


 


 


44) Sampling error can be reduced by __________.


 


A. increasing the sample size


B. none of the these affect sampling error


C. utilizing simple random samples


D. decreasing the sample size


 


 


 


45) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income.


 


Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with


Y = number of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and


X = size of police force in each city (thousands of police)?


 


A. Autocorrelation.


B. Positive slope (due to city size).


C. High R2 (due to city size).


D. No correlation.


 


 


 


46) In a random sample of 810 women employees, it is found that 81 would prefer working for a female boss. The width of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion of women who prefer a female boss is _____.


 


A. ± .0288


B. ± .0196


C. ± .0105


D. ± .0207


 


 


 


47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.


 


For this sample, the standard deviation is approximately _____.


 


A. 4.75


B. 3.03


C. 4.55


D. 3.75


 


 


48) A computer analysis reveals that the best-fitting trend model is Yt = 4.12 e 0.987 t. The trend was fitted using year-end common stock prices for Melodic Kortholt Outlet for the last six years. The R2 is 0.8571.


 


Which conclusion is not correct?


 


A. The absolute annual growth (in dollars per share) is increasing.


B. At the end of year 3 the stock price would be nearly $80.


C. Few investments could match the astounding growth rate.


D. The stock's true intrinsic value is $4.12.


 


 


 


49) Suppose the estimated quadratic model Yt = 500 + 20 t - t2 is the best-fitting trend of sales of XYZ Inc. using data for the past twenty years (t = 1, 2,.., 20).


 


Which statement is incorrect?


 


A. Sales are increasing by about 20 units per year.


B. Latest year sales are no better than in year zero.


C. The turning point would be in period 10.


D. The trend was higher in year 10 than in year 20.


 


 


 


50) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?


 


A. The impact of production and staffing plans cuts across several functional areas of the firm.


B. Production and staffing plans attempt to achieve several objectives, all of which must be consistent with one another.


C. When production and staffing plans are made, aggregation can be performed only along two dimensions: products and time.


D. Production and staffing plans specify production rates, workforce levels, and inventory holdings, but do not account for capacity limitations because they are aggregated.


 


 


 


 


 


 


 

Brittany :

7 - a adjusted trial balance

Brittany :

8 - d exchange price paid

Brittany :

9 - B

Brittany :

10 - a

Brittany :

11-d

Brittany :

12-a

Brittany :

13-b

Brittany :

14-b

Brittany :

14-d

Brittany :

oops....I meant 15-d

Brittany :

14 is b

Brittany :

sorry

Brittany :

16-d

Brittany :

17-b

Brittany :

18-c

Brittany :

19-d

Brittany :

20-b

Brittany :

21-a

Brittany :

22-b

Brittany :

23-a

Brittany :

24-d

Brittany :

25-c

Customer:

i already posted questions 26-50

Brittany :

26- c unfair foreign competition

Brittany :

27-a

Brittany :

28-a

Brittany :

29-e

Brittany :

30-e

Brittany :

31-d

Brittany :

32-e

Brittany :

33-e

Brittany :

34-e

Brittany :

35-e

Brittany :

36-a

Brittany :

37-e

Brittany :

38-e

Brittany :

39-c

Brittany :

40-e

Brittany :

41-c

Brittany :

42-c

Brittany :

I cant see the table to answer #43

Brittany :

44-a

Customer:

brittany skip that question its okay

Customer:

51) Companies using lean systems generally have:


 


A. suppliers who are low-cost producers.


B. many suppliers to ensure that material shortages never occur.


C. suppliers that are located nearby to decrease delivery lead time.


D. suppliers that are willing to accept short-term contracts.


 


 


 


52) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?


 


A. Process variation was not zero, as expected.


B. The engineering parameter for variance is unknown.


C. The engineers were underpaid for their work.


D. There was insufficient preliminary sampling.


 


 


53) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?


 


A. saves money


B. few types of off-the-shelf software are available, thus limiting confusion


C. saves time


D. company will know what it is getting


E. software can be tried out


 


 


 


54) A set of programs that enable the hardware to process data is _____.


 


A. procedures


B. hardware


C. database


D. network


E. software


 


 


 


55) The force behind globalization in _____ was the amount of muscle, horsepower, wind power, or steam power that a country could deploy.


 


A. None of these


B. Globalization 1.0


C. Globalization 2.0


D. Globalization 3.0


 


 


 


56) The Global, Web-Based Platform enables individuals to do which of the following?


 


A. all of these are true


B. connect, compute, communicate, collaborate, and compete everywhere and all the time


C. exchange knowledge


D. produce and sell goods and services


E. access information, services, and entertainment


 


 


 


57) Which of the following statements is correct?


 


A. The Internet has increased individuals’ privacy


B. An individual’s right to privacy is absolute


C. An individual’s right to privacy supersedes the needs of society


D. Advances in information technologies have not affected individual privacy


E. It is difficult to determine and enforce privacy regulations


 


 


58) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?


 


A. Structured and management control


B. Semistructured and strategic planning


C. Structured and operational control


D. Semistructured and management control


E. Unstructured and operational control


 


 


 


59) Information-based industries are most susceptible to which one of Porter’s five forces?


 


A. rivalry among existing firms in an industry


B. threat of substitute products


C. bargaining power of suppliers


D. bargaining power of customers


 


 


 


60) Which of the following is not a reason that managers need IT support?


 


A. Decision makers are often in different locations


B. Need to access remote information sources


C. Number of alternatives are decreasing


D. Decisions must typically be made under time pressure


E. Decisions are becoming more complex


 


 


 


61) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.


 


A. Multidimensional data analysis, data mining


B. Multidimensional data analysis, neural networks


C. Multidimensional data analysis, structured query language


D. Data mining, multidimensional data analysis


E. Data mining, expert system


 


 


 


62) International Game Technology’s new ERP system produced all of the following benefits except:


 


A. Operations employees were able to access manufacturing process details at their workstations


B. The company gained flexibility in manufacturing products


C. Integrated the company’s business functions


D. Company was able to maintain its original business processes


E. ERP system connected the company’s global operations


 


 


63) At what rate must $400 be compounded annually for it to grow to $716.40 in 10 years?


 


A. 8%


B. 7%


C. 6%


D. 5%


 


 


 


64) Exchange rate risk:


 


A. doesn’t affect trades made in US Dollars.


B. has been phased out due to recent international legislation.


C. arises from the fact that the spot exchange rate on a future date is a random variable.


D. applies only to certain types of domestic businesses.


 


 


 


65) According to the hedging principle, permanent assets should be financed with _____ liabilities.


 


A. fixed


B. current


C. permanent


D. spontaneous


 


 


 


66) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:


 


A. eliminate different financial risks.


B. eliminate judgment factors.


C. eliminate different business risks.


D. eliminate competitive factors.


 


 


 


67) Bondholders have a priority claim on assets ahead of:


 


A. creditors.


B. investors


C. common and preferred stockholders.


D. shareholders.


 


 


 


68) Forward rates are quoted:


 


A. on financial statements


B. by the FDIC


C. in direct form and at a premium or discount


D. in an indirect form


E. daily


 


 


 


69) Mortgage bonds:


 


A. can only be issued by financial institutions.


B. usually pay little or no interest.


C. are a type of debenture.


D. are secured by a lien on real property.


 


 


 


70) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)


 


A. -$150


B. $900


C. $490


D. $570


 


 


 


71) Which of the following best represents operating income?


 


A. Income from discontinued operations


B. Earnings before interest and taxes


C. Income after financing activities


D. Income from capital gains


 


 


 


72) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.


 


A. dividends paid


B. original amount invested


C. annual interest rate and number of compounding periods


D. rate of return


E. starting value


 


 


 


73) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?


 


A. 13.6%


B. 12.5%


C. 36.13%


D. 8.0%


 


 


 


74) You hold a portfolio with the following securities:


 


 


Security Percent of Portfolio Beta Return


X Corporation 20% 1.35 14%


Y Corporation 35% .95 10%


Z Corporation 45% .75 8%


 


 


 


Compute the expected return and beta for the portfolio.


 


A. 9.9%, .94


B. 9.9%, 1.02


C. 10.67%, 1.02


D. 34.4%, .94


 


 


 


75) Tri State Pickle Company preferred stock pays a perpetual annual dividend of 2 1/2% of its par value. Par value of TSP preferred stock is $100 per share. If investors’ required rate of return on this stock is 15%, what is the value of per share?


 


A. $6.00


B. $15.00


C. $37.50


D. $16.67


 

Brittany :

45-a

Brittany :

46-d

Brittany :

47-c

Brittany :

48-d

Brittany :

49-a

Brittany :

50-b

Brittany :

51-c

Brittany :

52-d

Brittany :

53-b

Brittany :

54-e

Brittany :

55-b

Brittany :

56-a

Brittany :

57-e

Brittany :

58-c

Brittany :

59-b

Brittany :

60-c

Brittany :

61-a

Brittany :

63-c

Brittany :

64-c

Brittany :

65-c

Brittany :

66-a

Brittany :

67-c

Brittany :

68-c

Brittany :

69-d

Brittany :

70-c

Customer:

76) When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:


 


A. pricing is to promotion.


B. store location is to sales force selection.


C. branding is to pricing.


D. personal selling is to mass selling.


E. production is to marketing.


 


 


 


77) In an effort to increase its total sales, Champion has started exporting its spark plugs for use by several German auto producers. Champion is pursuing a _____ opportunity.


 


A. market development


B. product development


C. diversification


D. mass marketing


E. market penetration


 


 


 


78) The statement, "Of course people will buy our product--each of its features is better than the competition," most closely reflects which consumer behavior concept?


 


A. the economic-buyer theory


B. needs


C. psychographics


D. competitive advantage


E. reference groups


 


 


 


79) Economists' economic-buyer theory assumes that __________.


 


A. consumers only want the cheapest price


B. consumers should purchase only low-priced products


C. demographic data are very useful for predicting consumer behavior


D. consumers always make rational decisions


E. buyers logically compare choices in order to maximize their satisfaction


 


 


 


80) A firm's "marketing mix" decision areas would NOT include:


 


A. Place.


B. Price.


C. Promotion.


D. Product.


E. People.


 


 


 


81) The managerial process of developing and maintaining a match between the resources of an organization and its market opportunities is called:


 


A. market planning.


B. management by objective.


C. marketing programming.


D. marketing strategy planning.


E. strategic (management) planning.


 


 


 


82) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:


 


A. make the most efficient use of the country's resources.


B. minimize inflation.


C. satisfy consumer needs as they--the consumers--see them.


D. provide each person with an equal share of the economic output.


E. achieve an annual growth rate of at least 10 percent.


 


 


 


83) Which of the following is a business or organizational customer?


 


A. All of these are business and organizational customers.


B. producers of goods or services.


C. a retailer.


D. a wholesaler.


E. a government agency.


 


 


 


84) Analysis of demographic dimensions:


 


A. only considers age.


B. is the most important step to successful segmentation.


C. considers income and sex, but not age.


D. is the most effective way to identify unmet consumer needs.


E. can be used along with analysis of other dimensions to identify attractive target markets.


 


 


 


85) "Positioning":


 


A. eliminates the need for judgment in strategy planning.


B. applies to new products--but not existing products.


C. helps strategy planners see how customers view competitors' offerings.


D. is concerned with obtaining the best shelf space in retail outlets.


E. is useful for combining but not for segmenting.


 


 


 


86) When evaluating macro-marketing:


 


A. one must consider the society’s role in the marketing system.


B. the evaluation is necessarily subjective.


C. the best approach is to consider the profit generated by individual firms within the overall system.


D. one must determine how efficiently the society's resources are used.


E. one must consider each individual firm's role in the marketing system.


 


 


 


87) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.


 


A. Customer relationship management (CRM)


B. Brand familiarity


C. Positioning


D. Market scanning


E. Market segmentation


 


 


 


88) The tort of palming off involves:


 


A. Representing one’s own goods to be those of a competitor.


B. Knowingly selling goods that are defective.


C. Blaming another for one’s own actions and communicating that blame to at least one other person.


D. Failing to credit another for that other person’s legal accomplishments.


E. Making false statements about the goods of another.


 


 


 


89) In a criminal proceeding, what is the difference between an indictment and an information?


 


A. An indictment requires proof beyond a reasonable doubt, but an information does not.


B. The defendant is charged with a crime in an indictment, but not in an information.


C. Guilt or innocence is determined in an indictment, but not in an information.


D. A grand jury issues an indictment, but does not issue an information.


 


 


 


90) Product disparagement differs from defamation of a nonpublic figure in that:


 


A. Intent is only required in a disparagement case.


B. Intent is required for the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.


C. Intent is required for the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.


D. Publication to a third party is required in the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.


E. Publication to a third party is required in the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.


 

Brittany :

71-b

Brittany :

72-d

Brittany :

73-d

Brittany :

74-a

Brittany :

75-d

Brittany :

76-e

Brittany :

77-a

Brittany :

78-a

Brittany :

79-e

Brittany :

80-e

Brittany :

81-e

Brittany :

82-c

Brittany :

83-a

Brittany :

84-e

Customer:

90) Product disparagement differs from defamation of a nonpublic figure in that:


 


A. Intent is only required in a disparagement case.


B. Intent is required for the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.


C. Intent is required for the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.


D. Publication to a third party is required in the disparagement case, but not in the defamation case.


E. Publication to a third party is required in the defamation case, but not in the disparagement case.


 


 


 


91) What type of commercial speech did the U.S. Supreme Court say was protected in the Greater New Orleans Broadcasting Association, Inc. v. United States case?


 


A. Information on how to build a bomb.


B. Information on gambling and lotteries.


C. Obscene speech.


D. Information about child pornography.


 


 


 


92) In which of the following are these steps of a criminal case listed in the correct order?


 


A. Arrest, indictment, trial, arraignment


B. Arraignment, arrest, trial, indictment


C. Arrest, indictment, arraignment, trial


D. Indictment, arraignment, arrest, trial


E. Arrest, arraignment, indictment, trial


93) Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship of law and ethics?


 


A. Depending on the circumstances, the law can require a higher, lower, or the same standard of conduct as ethics demands.


B. In some cases the law will require a higher standard of conduct than ethics, but never vice versa.


C. In some cases ethics will require a higher standard of conduct than the law, but never vice versa.


D. The legal requirements will almost always be the same as the ethical requirement because the law is based on the ethical standards.


 


 


 


94) An agent’s obligation to perform in accordance with the terms of the agency arrangement is the agent’s duty of:


 


A. Performance.


B. Nonbreach.


C. Indemnification.


D. Loyalty.


E. Obedience.


 


 


 


95) Generally, which of the following statements relating to contractual capacity is correct?


 


A. Minors make void contracts.


B. People who have been adjudicated insane make voidable contracts.


C. People with no competence make voidable contracts.


D. People with limited competence make void contracts.


E. Persons with full competence make enforceable contracts.


 


 


 


96) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:


 


A. The secured party gets to take some other property as collateral so his entire debt is secured.


B. The secured party is unsecured for the entire debt.


C. The secured party loses the excess of debt over the value of the security.


D. The secured party is unsecured for the excess of debt over the value of the security.


E. The secured party is still secured for the entire debt owed him.


 


 


 


97) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?


 


A. Conventions, treaties, comity, customs


B. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity


C. Conventions, comity, customs, general principles of law


D. Treaties, customs, general principles of law, judicial decisions and teachings


E. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity


 


 


 


98) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world's goods?


 


A. China


B. Ecuador


C. Mexico


D. Canada


E. Japan


 


 


 


99) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States' second largest trading partner.


 


A. Mexico, Venezuela


B. Great Britain, Paraguay


C. Mexico, Canada


D. Canada, Mexico


E. Canada, Venezuela


 


 


 


100) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.


 


A. $2; about 25


B. About $2; about 15


C. Less than $1; about 40


D. Less than $1; about 25


E. Less than $1; about 15


 


 


 

Brittany :

85-c

Brittany :

86-b

Brittany :

87-c

Brittany :

88-d

Brittany :

89-d

Brittany :

How are we doing with time?

Brittany :

I ran out of time during mine so I wanted to check

Customer:

35 minutes

Brittany :

90-b

Brittany :

okay..9 more to go!

Customer:

yes, i really appreciate this

Brittany :

-b

Brittany :

92-e

Brittany :

93-a

Brittany :

94-d

Brittany :

95-a

Brittany :

96-d

Brittany :

97-d

Brittany :

98-a

Brittany :

99-d

Brittany :

100-e

Brittany :

I hope you did okay....I only got a 75% when I did mine in my own class but the instructor graded on a scale and I had the best grade so I got 15/15

Brittany :

most instructors do grade on a scale in this class so I hope yours does too!!! And I hope I didnt do terrible!!!

Customer:

I hope so too. Thanks Brittany, I will put a bonus after i click accept. by the way are you done with my accounting problems as well?

Brittany :

Yes, I just need to upload them!

Brittany :

I have to get my own homework posted really quick and get some team stuff out of the way and I will upload your answer to mediafire and get it to you

Customer:

thanks have a great night, i will talk to you again thursday for the rest of the assignments

Customer:

i got 80/100

Brittany and other Writing Homework Specialists are ready to help you