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Thomas, Lawyer
Category: UK Property Law
Satisfied Customers: 7620
Experience:  BA (Hons), PgDip, Practising Solicitor
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Hi, re

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Hi, re

Would the title of land pass to the landlord due to the fact the occupant isn't owner of the actual property?

I assume that the land sought is land next to the landlord's land.

The landlord would only be able to claim it under the adverse possession rules. It does not pass to them automatically. They have to prove AP.

If the landlord themselves has not actually occupied the landlord (because it is the tenant who has) then they would not in my opinion meet the eligiblity criteria to claim it.

Customer: replied 3 years ago.


The landlord has nothing to do with the land in question. The land has been occupied for over 22 years by my dad who is the tenant. The land can also be accessed without the need to access the tenanted property.

Therefore do you see any reason why the Land Reg would pass an application in my dads name to the landlord?


I cannot see any reason why the land registry would say that it is the landlord that should be applying for adverse possession, no.

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