If there are no dependent children the starting point is 50-50.
That then gets adjusted depending on time married and need to
provide for children and who has them and unequal inputs.
For example a girl with nothing marries a millionaire and gets
divorced after 12 months. She wouldn't get 50%
If they had been married for 40 years but never worked she is
still unlikely to get 50% but would get a substantial chunk.
If he wasn't a millionaire and she worked and contributed, after
40 years she would get 50%, maybe more.
It isn't an exact science or calculation. The fact that a house
may now be in one name only matters not a jot. If one party put all the equity
in, say from an old house, that will adjust the split in their favour,
diminishing as time goes on.
"With all my worldly goods I thee endow" doesn't work in
This may be useful http://www.bbc-law.co.uk/divorce-finances-faq.php
Pensions also go into the pot.
There is a possibility of a
liability for spousal maintenance, maintenance paid to keep a spouse , as
opposed to children. Although most commonly paid from husband to wife, that is
not necessarily the case. Spousal maintenance is based on both incomes, ability
to earn money, previous lifestyles and most importantly, need. It is not about
equalising incomes. There is no exact formula, but these links will give some
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