Hello and welcome to JustAnswer. Please note:This is general information for educational purposes only and is not legal advice. No specific course of action is proposed herein, and no attorney-client relationship or privilege is formed by speaking to an expert on this site. By continuing, you confirm that you understand and agree to these terms.
I an sorry you are dealing with this situation. There potential is a problem here in that no date was specified. If you were represented by a Realtor, you should be giving them a call and putting them on notice they have potential liability here.
However, the fact there is not date does not automatically void the agreement however, this is really unreasonable to that the sale would be allowed to move forward. Here is the standard the court will imply: a "rule of reasonableness" which must be gleaned from the context and totality of all of the clauses of the contract so as to "effect the intent" of the parties when they entered it.
It is very hard to imagine that a Judge would see that the parties agreed to an open closing so the value of the property would increase and the buyer would get a win fall from closing two years after the agreement was entered into.
I would retain another attorney in your local area and have them put a stop to this situation so this does not go any further.
All my best and encouragement. Thank you for allowing me to help you with your questions. I have done my best to provide information which fully addresses your question. If you have any follow up questions, please ask! Please press a positive rating above this message box in the ratings section so I will be paid for my time assisting you on this matter. Pressing a positive rating will not cost any additional money - it is simply the trigger used by Just Answer to pay me for my time (pressing the middle star or the fourth or fifth star on the right are all positive rating buttons).