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Paternity determination. Had sex with guy #1 on 10/13/16.

About a week later had...
Paternity determination. Had sex with guy #1 on 10/13/16. About a week later had sex with guy #2 and continued sexual relations with him for the next two months. On 12/29/16 went in for an ultrasound which dates me at 8 weeks 2 days with an EDD of 8/8/17. Additional info; had a miscarriage on8/31/16. Had light bleeding for about 2 days on 10/28/16 even though my usual period are 5 days long and a bit heavier. Factoring margin of error for early ultrasounds determining how far along you are and the possibility of sperm living up to 5-7 days inside female genital tract; is there any way at all this could be guy #1’s Baby? One expert on here said that it was possible to be guy #1’s because I ovulated around 10/19 if we counted back from the weeks of the ultrasound but wouldn’t that be incorrect because they measure by GESTATIONAL age, meaning the first week or so I wasn’t actually pregnant making my date of conception in November?
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Answered in 16 minutes by:
10/16/2017
Dr. K.
Dr. K., MD
Category: OB GYN
Satisfied Customers: 4,897
Experience: Board certified OB/GYN with 20 years of experience.
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Hello and welcome to Just Answer. I looking forward to assisting you with your question and providing excellent service. You conceived around November 15 according to your 8 week ultrasound. It has an error margin of plus or minus 5 days. You could not have become pregnant on oct 13. A pregnancy is dated from the last menstrual period. Which is two weeks prior to conception. Conception actually occurs 2 weeks into "pregnancy dating". The ultrasound is NEVER gestational age and is always counted back to the first day of the last period. Even if you didnt have one or your period if off.
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Customer reply replied 8 months ago
In summary it is impossible for me to have become pregnant from the October 13th encounter even when factoring in margin of error for early ultrasounds (5 days) and how long sperm can live in the female genital tract (also 5 days). Correct?
Impossible
Dr. K.
Dr. K., MD
Category: OB GYN
Satisfied Customers: 4,897
Experience: Board certified OB/GYN with 20 years of experience.
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Customer reply replied 7 months ago
One more thing, you wrote that ultrasounds are never gestational age but did you actually mean they’re never fetal age?
That's not a valid question. The ultrasound is dated from the first day of the last menstrual period, assuming a 28 day cycle. Conception occurs 2 weeks into the dating process. It does not matter when your period was or was not. That is how it is dated. The fetal age is dated that way. There's no such thing as "fetal age or gestational age". There is one and only one way to date a pregnancy and to read an ultrasound. Not two
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Customer reply replied 7 months ago
Even if the cycle isn’t 28 days, theres still absolutely no way it could be #1’s? Asking only because for the month of October i did bleed on the 28 but only for about a day and it was not heavy whereas it’s usually 5 days and medium flow.
Makes no different on the cycle. You have a an ultrasound
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