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That doesn't sound right to me, unless the charges are for coverage you received after the change to full tort, which they had not yet charged you for. The "effective date" of your coverage determines the date from which you are liable to pay the additional charges, for full tort.
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If they want to "backdate" like this, I think it incumbent for them to explain to you why they are charging you for coverage you never had. As you point out, there is no law saying they can charge you for coverage you never received.