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The receiver represents the marital estate via a court order. If the marital estate (via the receiver) entered into a binding contract with the buyer, then the receiver is bound to honor it, arguably.
So the question becomes whether or not the purchase order is a binding contract. Traditionally, both seller and buyer sign the contract. However according to contract doctrine and Texas Business and Commerce Code Sec. 26.01, a contract only has to be signed "by the person to be charged with the promise or agreement" - which many have successfully argued to mean that only the buyer has to sign it - whoever is paying money, that is.
As such, someone in your situation may wish to argue that the contract is now binding. But what if the receiver does not honor the agreement? Since the receiver reports to the Court and this is within a divorce matter, someone in your situation wants to file a Motion to Compel or similar motion, asking the Court to force the receiver to honor the contract and to sell the home.
Then, the Judge decides, going off both contract law and other nuances that may factor in since this is a family matter.
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