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007531RR - UNDERSTANDING MATTER - STRUCTURES, COMPOSITIONS, FORMATIONS
1. In the periodic table, the period number indicates
A. the number of the outermost energy level for elements in that period.
B. the number of valence electrons for elements in that period.
C. the number of dots shown on the Lewis dot diagrams for elements in that period.
D. the reactivity levels for elements in that period.
2. Atoms of the element beryllium would most likely behave similar to the way _______ behaves.
3. Ionic compounds can conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted, because
A. they have no ions to contribute to the solution.
B. the ions are fixed in place.
C. the ions are free to move.
D. they have shared electrons.
4. Which of the following statements incorrectly depicts the scientific method?
A. Hypotheses are tested through experimentation and will be supported or refuted by the results of the experiment.
B. Observations are included in the first step of the scientific method.
C. Scientific theories are based on the findings supported by many experiments.
D. The approach of the scientific method varies from one scientist to another.
5. What is the proper name for MgSO4 7H2O?
A. Magnesium sulfite heptahydrate
B. Manganese sulfate hexahydrate
C. Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate
D. Magnesium sulfite dihydrate
6. Which of the following is not a way an atom can achieve stability?
A. Gain electrons to fill its outer energy level
B. Lose electrons to achieve a noble gas configuration
C. Share electrons to abide by the octet rule
D. Remove electrons from its full outer energy level
7. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Ionic bonds and covalent bonds are the result of atoms trying to achieve full outermost energy levels.
B. Covalent compounds result from sharing of electrons, and ionic compounds result from the electron transfer from one atom to another.
C. More than two electrons can be transferred in ionic bonds or shared in covalent bonds.
D. Covalent compounds are held together by much stronger interparticle forces than are ionic compounds.
8. What characteristic shared between chlorine, fluorine, and bromine makes them have similar properties?
A. All have two electrons in their first energy levels.
B. All have seven valence electrons.
C. All have a similar state of matter.
D. All have the same number of protons in their outermost energy levels.
9. Which is not true of binary compounds?
A. These contain only two elements.
B. The positively charged metal ion is written first.
C. The name of the positively charged nonmetal ion is changed to end in –ide. D. These usually consist of a metal and a nonmetal.
10. The difference between isotopes for the same element will be found in the atoms'
A. number of protons.
B. number of electrons.
C. number of neutrons.
11. Which of these statements is incorrect regarding an atom of the element scandium?
A. Its chemical symbol is Sc.
B. It has 21 neutrons in its nucleus.
C. It has 21 positively charged protons in its nucleus.
D. It has 21 negatively charged electrons.
12. These two elements are most likely good conductors of heat and electricity and shiny when solid.
A. P and Se
B. Au and Br
C. Sn and Ag
D. B and I
13. The current periodic table arranges elements by
A. increasing atomic number.
C. state of matter.
D. increasing atomic mass.
14. Which pairing below does not correctly match the scientist with the contribution to the understanding of the atom?
A. Dalton and the initial proposal of the atomic theory of matter
B. Proust and the realization that the elements of compounds are found in certain proportions by mass
C. Thomson and the law of definite proportions
D. Rutherford and the understanding that the atom has a small, dense nucleus with a positive charge
15. What is the Roman numeral that should be used in the following: silver (_______) sulfide?
C. No Roman numeral should be used here.
16. Which of these items best describes the arrangement of electrons in an atom of sulfur?
A. Two valence electrons in its first energy level; eight electrons in its second energy level; six electrons in its outermost energy
B. Eight electrons in its first energy level; eight valence electrons in its outermost shell
C. Two electrons in its first energy level; two electrons in its second energy level; eight electrons in its third energy level; four valence electrons in its outermost energy level
D. Two electrons in its first energy level; eight electrons in its second energy level; six valence electrons in its outermost energy level
17. Atoms of the group 15 elements tend to react to form _______ ions.
18. _______ is one element that has properties of both metals and nonmetals. A. Arsenic
19. What is the correct formula for calcium cyanide?
A. Ca(CN) 2
C. CN(Ca) 2
20. When water decomposes into oxygen and hydrogen, the mass
B. remains constant.
D. varies according the number of hydrogen and oxygen molecules that form.
007532RR - CHEMICAL EQUATIONS, REACTIONS AND BONDING TO PERIOD TABLE
1. When chromium loses two electrons, its configuration changes to
2. Due to shape and polarity differences, the boiling point of carbon dioxide dioxide is _______ water.
A. slightly higher than
B. equal to
C. lower than
D. much higher than
3. Which of these equations is balanced?
D.2NaCI +H2So4 –>Na2So4+2HCI
4. Which of the following statements is not accurate in regard to the first four energy levels?
A. The fourth energy level is the only energy level to hold an f sublevel.
B. The first energy level has 1 p orbital.
C. The third energy level can hold a maximum of 18 electrons.
D. An orbital can hold a maximum of two electrons.
5. In a _______ reaction, the compound breaks down; in a _______ reaction, a single compound is assembled from two or more substances.
A. single-displacement; synthesis
B. decomposition; synthesis
C. decomposition; single-displacement
D. synthesis; decomposition
6. Which element's atomic radius changes the most in size when it becomes ionized?
7. Which of these lists the energies of the sublevels, from highest to lowest?
A. d > p > s > f
B. d > f > s > p
C. f > d > p > s
D. s > p > d > f
8. Based on electronegativity differences, between which two elements will a bond result in a highly unequal sharing of electrons?
A. Lead and sulfur
B. Chlorine and lithium
C. Aluminum and chlorine
D. Nitrogen and oxygen
9. Ethyne differs from ethene in what way?
A. The carbons in ethyne are not fixed in place as they are in ethene.
B. The carbons share three pairs of electrons in ethyne and only two pairs in ethene.
C. Ethyne contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms.
D. The carbons in ethyne each form three single bonds whereas those in ethene each form four single bonds.
10. Which of the following would not increase the rate of most reactions?
A. Increasing the temperature
B. Adding a catalyst
C. Lowering the concentration of the reactants
D. Removing an inhibitor
11. Which of the following is the least reactive nonmetal?
12. _______ with the largest atoms and the smallest number of valence electrons and _______ with the smallest atoms and the greatest number of valence electrons are the most reactive.
A. Metals; nonmetals
B. Nonmetals; metals
C. Transition elements; metals
D. Nonmetals; transition elements
13. Based on silicon's position on the periodic table, it has
A. 14 electrons, which include 10 valence electrons in the second energy level and 4 electrons in the first energy level.
B. 14 valence electrons distributed over three energy levels.
C. 14 electrons, which include 4 valence electrons in the third energy level and 10 electrons distributed over the first two energy levels.
D. 14 electrons, which include 2 valence electrons in the third energy level and 12 electrons distributed over the first two energy levels.
14. All the following are signs of a chemical reaction, except
A. a release of gas.
B. a change of state.
C. a change in color or odor.
D. a change in energy.
15. Covalent bonding (with an electronegativity difference below 0.5) results when fluorine bonds with
16. Which of the following is true regarding the transition elements?
A. Changes in atomic radii in transition elements are greater than those in the main group elements.
B. Most transition elements have lower melting and boiling points than the main group elements.
C. Multiple oxidation states resulting from the involvement of d electrons in bonding is a characteristic of transition elements.
D. Transition elements have predictable reactivity patterns.
17. Which of the following is true?
A. Group 1 elements are more reactive than the group 2 elements because they have more valence electrons to lose.
B. Lithium is the least reactive element in group 1, because it is the smallest and holds its valence electron more tightly than the others in the same group.
C. The least reactive element in group 2 is the one with the largest atomic radium and the least amount of attraction between the nucleus and the valence electrons.
D. Cesium is the most active group 1 metal, because its valence electron is held more tightly than the others in the same group.
18. What is the electronegativity difference for a bond between potassium and iodine?
19. Which of the following scenarios would drive the reaction below to the left?
A. Removing C
B. Adding B
C. Adding D
D. Adding more energy
20. Which of the following is not true in regard to atomic radii of main group elements?
A. Atomic radii size is related to the number of electrons in the valence level and the number of protons in the nucleus.
B. Atomic radii generally increase as you move from left to right across a period.
C. Atomic radii decrease in size when the pull of electrons toward the nucleus of an atom is greater.
D. Atomic radii generally increase as you move down a group.
007533RR - STATES OF MATTER, PHASE CHANGES, AND STOICHIOMETRY
1. A container of gas has a volume of 3.5 L and a pressure of 0.8 atm. Assuming the temperature remains constant, what volume of gas would result if the pressure was 0.5 atm?
A. 5.6 L
B. 2.2 L
C. 0.2 L
D. 1.8 L
2. How many moles are contained in a 4.67-L sample of gas at 30°C and 199 kPa?
A. 1.7 mol
B. 0.37 mol
C. 3.7 mol
D. 11.8 mol
3. At which step(s) pictured on the graph below, does the temperature remain constant?
A. Heating liquid
B. Cooling solid
4. The mass of a quantity of NiCl2 is 24.6 g. How many formula units are in the sample?
A. 3.2 3 1023 NiCl2 formula units
B. 5.3 3 10–21 NiCl2 formula units
C. 1.1 3 1023 NiCl2 formula units
D. 1.9 3 1027 NiCl2 formula units
5. What is the number of moles in 42 g of NaCl?
A. 1.2 mol NaCl
B. 0.72 mol NaCl
C. 0.61 mol NaCl
D. 1.8 mol NaCl
6. What mass of propane (C3H8) is needed to produce 346 g carbon dioxide in the following reaction?C3H8(g)+50'2(g)–>3CO2(g)+4H20(g)
B. 115 g C3H8
C.5075gC H 38
D. 1.86 g C3H8
7. If the temperature of an object is 335 K, how would this be expressed on the Celsius scale?
8. All of the following conditions of STP are true except
A. 101.3 kPa
B. 24.2 L
D. 273.15 K
9. A 8.5 L sample is collected at 45°C. What will the volume be if the temperature is raised to 70°C?
A. 9.2 L
B. 7.9 L
C. 5.5 L
D. 13.2 Lb
10. Theoretically, a student performing a lab experiment was expected to get 9 g of product. Instead, the student obtained only 7.8 g. What is the percent yield of the reaction performed by the student?
A. 87 percent
B. 1.15 percent
C. 67 percent
D. 0.86 percent
11. Which of the following devices can measure only atmospheric pressure?
B. Tire gauge
C. Mercury tube
D. Pressure gauge
12. How many silver (Ag) atoms are in a silver bar that is 20.0 g?
A. 6.02 3 1023 Ag atoms
B. 1.1 3 1023 Ag atoms
C. 1.3 3 1027 Ag atoms
D. 1.8 3 1023 Ag atoms
13. What is the mass of the 3.7 mol PbO2?
A. 884 g PbO 2
B. 65 g PbO2
C. 825 g PbO2
D. 0.15 g PbO2
14. Imagine you have two containers of gas, one labeled gas A and one labeled gas B. Gas A has an average speed of 700 m/s and gas B has an average speed of 1100 m/s. Both containers are being held at the same temperature. How could you match the average speeds of gas A and gas B?
A. Lower the temperature of gas A.
B. Lower the temperature of gas B.
C. Reduce the volumes of both containers.
D. Raise the temperature of gas B.
15. What is the major element per mass in NaOH?
B. All elements contribute the same mass.
16. What is the molecular mass of potassium hydrogen carbonate (KHCO3)?
A. 68 g/mol
B. 84 g/mol
C. 100 g/mol
D. 116 g/mol
17. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 14 g calcium, 11 g oxygen, and 0.7 g hydrogen?
A. Ca OH22
18. What is the volume of 55 L of gas initially at 500 K and 4.25 atm when conditions change to STP?
A. 10.5 L
B. 584.0 L
C. 428.1 L
D. 127.6 L
19. The least common form of matter on Earth is
A. liquid crystal.
D. amorphous solid.
20. According to Boyle, pressure and volume of a confined gas are _______ proportional, and according to Charles, the volume of a gas at constant pressure is _______ proportional to its Kelvin temperature.
A. not; inversely
B. directly; not
C. inversely; directly
D. directly; inversely
007534RR - ACIDS, BASES, AND REDOX REACTIONS
1. Which of the following statements about the pH scale is true?
A. Bases, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than acids, are found from 0 and up to 7.
B. Bases, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than acids, are found from 14 and down to 7.
C. Acids, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than bases, are found from 0 and up to 7.
D. Acids, which have lower concentrations of hydronium ions than bases, are found from 14 and down to 7.
2. A solution with a hydronium ion concentration of 10–11M has a pH of
3. Which of the following is not an application that uses chemiluminescent reactions?
A. Criminal investigations using luminol to detect blood
B. Tarnish polish
C. Light sticks
4. A weak acid placed in water contains
A. no unionized acid molecules.
B. the same number of unionized acid molecules as a strong acid in water.
C. a higher concentration of unionized acid molecules than a strong acid in water.
D. a lower concentration of unionized acid molecules than a strong acid in water.
5. If object A is placed on the pH scale at pH = 3 and object B is placed at pH = 8, which of the following must not be true?
A. Object A has a lower hydronium ion concentration than object B. B. Object B has a higher hydroxide ion concentration than object A.
C. Object B is closer to a neutral pH than object A.
D. Object A is an acid and object B is a base.
6. Which of the following is true regarding acids and bases?
A. Acids contribute hydroxide ions in solutions; bases produce hydronium ions in solutions.
B. Both acids and bases cause indicator dyes to change colors.
C. Acids and bases will react only outside living systems.
D. Acids are slippery to the touch; bases are able to burn your hands.
7. All the following are necessary parts of a neutralization reaction except
A. a salt.
C. an acid.
D. an indicator.
8. NH3–NH4Cl is a/an _______ that helps regulate the pH of a system.
D. neutral solution
9. _______ is often utilized in reactions involving bleach.
D. CO 2
10. Regarding the vaporization of water, which of the following is true?
A. A great deal of heat must be lost by water to form hydrogen bonds and allow molecules to move farther apart.
B. A great deal of heat must be absorbed by water to break hydrogen bonds and allow molecules to move farther apart.
C. Vaporization of water is an exothermic process.
D. Water must lose a great deal of heat before it will vaporize.
11. Which of the following would be the best indicator dye to use to detect a pH = 10?
B. Bromthymol blue
C. Bromcresol green
D. Methyl orange
12. Oxidation-reduction reactions
A. must include a transfer of electrons from one atom or ion to another.
B. must include oxygen.
C. can include an atom or ion being reduced without an atom or ion being oxidized.
D. do not need to have both an oxidation and a reduction reaction.
13. What of the following is most likely the net ionic equation for the reaction between a strong acid and a strong base?
14. Electrolysis can be used for all of the following, except
A. producing compounds.
B. recharging batteries.
C. plating objects with metal coatings.
D. separating metals from ores.
15. Which of the following pairs of reactants is not correctly listed with its product solution?
A. Weak base-strong acid reactants— more acidic solutions
B. Strong acid-strong base reactants—more acidic solutions
C. Weak acid-strong base reactants— more basic solutions
D. Strong base-strong acid reactants—neutral solutions
M? 16. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion concentration of 10–6
A. pH = 7
B. pH = 6
C. pH = 12
D. pH = 8
17. Within a voltaic cell, _______ takes place at the anode, electrons flow to the cathode, where _____ takes place.
A. reduction; oxidation
B. reduction; current
C. oxidation; reduction
D. oxidation; current
18. How would you prepare 3.5 L of a 0.9M solution of KCl?
A. Add 287 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
B. Add 23 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
C. Add 233 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
D. Add 567 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
19. Which of the following statements is inaccurate?
A. The electronic structure of an atom or ion being oxidized doesn't change during the reaction.
B. Oxidation results in a positive charge.
C. Oxidation comes before reduction.
D. Oxidation includes a loss of electrons from an atom or ion.
20. When salt is added to water, all of the following happen except
A. the positive part of the water molecule is attracted to the negative ions.
B. the salt breaks into positive chlorine ions and negative sodium ions.
C. the water molecules surround the dissociated ions.
D. the negative part of the water molecule is attracted to the positive ions.
007535RR - ORGANIC, BIOLOGICAL, AND NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
1. Vitamins are classified according to
A. their functions in the body.
B. their solubility in water and fat.
C. their coenzymes.
D. their ability to fight disease.
2. All of the following are true regarding alcoholic fermentation, except that alcoholic fermentation
A. uses glycolysis.
B. produces as much energy as cell respiration.
C. produces ethanol.
D. does not require oxygen.
3. _______ are produced in the light reactions and used in the Calvin cycle.
A. Sugar molecules
B. Electrons and sugars
C. NADP+ and ADP
D. NADPH and ATP
4. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be the most reactive?
5. Which of the following accurately describes the properties of DNA and RNA?
A. DNA and RNA have identical structures.
B. DNA and RNA use the same sugar.
C. DNA and RNA use the same four bases.
D. DNA and RNA are made up of repeating nucleotides.
6. All the following steps need to be followed when naming alkanes, except
A. placing the name in alphabetic order ignoring the added prefixes.
B. locating the longest carbon chain.
C. using prefixes to designate identical branches.
D. beginning numbering at the end farther from the first branch.
7. A plastic substance is reheated but won't soften enough to be remolded. This substance must be a
A. thermoplastic material.
B. natural polymer.
C. thermosetting polymer.
D. synthetic monomer.
8. All the following can result in the disruption of a protein's ability to function, except
A. extreme pH conditions.
B. maintaining the protein's shape.
C. mechanic agitations.
D. high temperatures.
9. What do all steroids have in common?
A. They are not lipids.
B. They are all built on a four-ring structure.
C. They are all sex hormones.
D. They all have the same function.
10. Which of the following is true of photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen is a reactant.
B. Water is a product.
C. Carbon dioxide is a reactant.
D. Most reactions within this process are exothermic.
11. What is one thing that all polysaccharides have in common?
A. All polysaccharides are made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
B. The number of glucose molecules is always the same.
C. The amount of branching remains constant.
D. Glucose molecules are always bonded to each other in the same way.
12. How much heat does 225 g of water gain when its temperature rises from 25°C to 32°C?
A. 21.65 kJ
B. 6.59 kJ
C. 30.12 kJ
D. 0.376 kJ
13. _______ is the radioisotope commonly used to map a human's circulatory system.
14. The main difference between respiration and fermentation is that respiration
A. requires oxygen.
B. makes energy.
C. uses glycolysis.
D. breaks down sugar.
15. Which of the following is not an end product of fractional distillation?
B. Crude petroleum
C. Heating oil
16. With a 1.0–2.0 Sv dosage of radiation, an individual can expect to
A. have nausea and hair loss.
D. see no immediate effect.
17. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Nuclear fusion requires a enough fissionable material present to create and sustain a chain reaction.
B. Nuclear fusion produces much more energy than nuclear fission.
C. Nuclear fusion involves the splitting of a nucleus; nuclear fission involves combining two or more nuclei.
D. Reactors for nuclear fusion are much more realistic than are reactors for nuclear fission.
18. All the following are steps included in linking amino acids to form chains except
A. removing the hydroxyl part of the amino group.
B. removing a hydrogen from the amino group.
C. forming water.
D. using a peptide bond to connect the amino acids.
19. _______ are the best starting materials for making organic compounds with varying functional groups.
A. Carboxylic acids
20. Which pairing accurately matches a biomolecule polymer with its monomer subunit?
A. Nucleic acid and bases
B. Carbohydrate and sterols
C. Lipid and fatty acids
D. Protein and amino acids