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No, she can only claim marital interests in property that you actually own. If your father is a joint owner in the house, then he basically has 50% ownership in the house (depending on the actual agreement in the deed). She cannot ask for something that you do not own. If you bring evidence of that fact to the court then the court will value the house appropriately and not add in the entire value of the house into its calculations.
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It really does not matter unless she proves that you were trying to fraudulently hide assets from her for the purposes of divorce. If this was done long ago and doesn't involve something like that, it doesn't matter if he provided any funds. It is owned jointly and she cannot touch it. It sounds like she is just trying to put pressure on you. She only can ask for property acquired during the marriage that you own, that is marital property.
If the home is the marital home then she might be able to claim a portion of it. Especially if marital funds were used for it. It is really up to the Judge. If the land was jointly owned but the house not, it would also be pretty easy for the court to add in half of the value of the land, etc. This might be a difficult issue but the court will have to take in all of the facts and make a judgment regarding the value of the land and home and how much might be attributable to the marriage. At the end of the day, you cannot give more than what you have if your father owns an interest and the court will take that into account most likely.
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If the house is the marital home, then the Judge will just have to ascertain its value (because you own the home and property jointly the court may not attribute more than 50% to the marriage or may do more). It is really impossible to say but you should know that the court does take into account the value of the home if it is where the family lived and if marital asset were put into the house. It can get a bit complicated.
No it doesn't have to be exact. If your father put money into the home and property and helped build it in exchange for partial ownership in the home, that is what you need to concentrate on. If it is truely intended for him to be a joint owner then the court will take that into account. It is hard for me to give you an exact opinion as there are a lot of moving parts for this but property that is owned jointly and not attributable as marital property should not be taken into account as marital property by the court. The courts are more inclined to keep his value out if you used money and labor to build the home in exchange for a joint ownership interest. I would really appreciate it if you could rate my answer. Thank you.
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Thank you and good luck.