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My husband and I are currently going through a divorce he

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had emailed my attorney our...
My husband and I are currently going through a divorce he had emailed my attorney our agreements for the divorce which stated that we would split his inheritance that he received after both parents died equally.
I receive a email from my attorney that will be out for the next two weeks where my soon to be ex-husband sent him this email what does it mean ?The inheritance was acquired in Nov 2015 and was not monies accumulated during the course of the marriage." If that is put in I will sign.We are getting a divorce due to him having multiple affairs and him having a girlfriend now that he is with even though we live together.
Submitted: 3 months ago.Category: Family Law
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7/30/2017
Family Lawyer: Legal Eagle, Lawyer replied 3 months ago
Legal Eagle
Legal Eagle, Lawyer
Category: Family Law
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Customer reply replied 3 months ago
More or less my husband and last nine years parents passed away he received an inheritance and 2015 we are now in the process of getting a divorce due to adultery and him having a girlfriend that he is going to continue a relationship with . He originally agreed which was his idea to split the inheritance evenly so I'm able to take care of our daughter if anything were to happen to myself and I was in able to work. He's the one that actually sent my attorney the agreement that we had came up on that list of every single thing which included. That all ***** ***** accounts accrued by inheritance shall be split evenly per our agreement and divorce decree. I just received an email that I did not see you until today from my attorney and he is out of the office for two weeks.
This is what My Husband sent to my attorney. And my attorney sent me back asking me if I was OK with this language and had anything changed.This is what the email said.
Sir
When it come to the splitting of my inheritance, I want the following verbage added:
"The inheritance was acquired in Nov 2015 and was not monies accumulated during the course of the marriage."
So what does this even mean?
Family Lawyer: Legal Eagle, Lawyer replied 3 months ago

I can see what you mean. So, Usually when a court is going to be ordering a property division in it or they're going to look to see what property was of the marriage. If somebody received an inheritance, that property is ordinarily not going to be considered a part of the marriage. Therefore, it just means that this money that came from the inheritances not money that was accumulated during the marriage. It's not normally a big deal, it is probably just something that your ex husband is putting in there just in case you decide that you don't want to agree and you would like to fight it in court. There would be no confusion on the courts and that this money was not a part of the marriage and that it should be he is. If you guys agree and you submit it to the judge then you should not have any issues, but that's what it means.

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Customer reply replied 3 months ago
with that email is he now saying he doesn't want it to be split evenly now?
Family Lawyer: Legal Eagle, Lawyer replied 3 months ago

I have no reason to believe that is what he is saying. I believe that he is just trying to characterize the property just in case you decide you don't want to split it evenly. Did you have any other questions for me?

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Customer reply replied 3 months ago
No thank you.
Family Lawyer: Legal Eagle, Lawyer replied 3 months ago

The pleasure is all mine! Further up on the you should see a chance to give me a rating. 5-stars are always appreciated, but it is definitely not required! You can also click here in the future to request me individually. Don’t forget, if you haven’t already, you can always sign up for a membership with Just Answer and start asking more questions on the cheap.

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