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If your attorney did not sign a rule 11 agreement? But

Customer Question
advised it and you did...
If your attorney did not sign a rule 11 agreement? But advised it and you did not sign. Divorce. And withdrew the attoney for not what was asked in the original divorce decree? Is the rule 11 enforceable by only one parties attorney. I signed nothing as I did not agree to the terms.
Submitted: 11 months ago.Category: Family Law
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Customer reply replied 11 months ago
I did not sign the rule 11 nor my attorney I dropped my attorney. His advice sign mine? No. All the facts where not heard. He was dropped as he failed to provide written paper work to oppose the other parties argument.
Customer reply replied 11 months ago
If you legal docs to oppsose the argument they should be produced is my point.
Customer reply replied 11 months ago
Now. Besides that I would like to hear a lawyer explian how a morality clause in TX? Let the two cheating parties live together?
Just answer the question as I paid for service. Thank you.
Customer reply replied 11 months ago
Kids are involved.
Customer reply replied 11 months ago
No real answers yet.
Answered in 2 hours by:
11/29/2016
Family Lawyer: RayAnswers, Lawyer replied 11 months ago
RayAnswers
RayAnswers, Lawyer
Category: Family Law
Satisfied Customers: 43,525
Experience: 30 years as a family law lawyer .
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Hi and welcome to JA. Ray here to help you today.Please bear with me a few moments while I review your question and respond.

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Family Lawyer: RayAnswers, Lawyer replied 11 months ago

It has to be agreed to by both parties or their lawyers and signed here.

RULE 11. AGREEMENTS TO BE IN WRITING

Unless otherwise provided in these rules,no

agreement between attorneys or parties

touching any suit pending will be enforced

unless it be in writing, signed and filed

with the papers as part of the record, or

unless it be made in open court and

entered of record.

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Family Lawyer: RayAnswers, Lawyer replied 11 months ago

Many divorce judgments contain what is known as a “morality clause” in them as part of divorce settlement.

While there are many variations of such clauses, a morality clause is essentially a provision in a divorce decree, or court order, that says that neither parent can have a romantic partner spend the night while the children are present.

A morality clause is supposed to prevent a parent from exposing their children to a “revolving door” of new boyfriends/girlfriends. However, what it often actually does is create serious problems for a divorced parent in forming new relationships long into the future.

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Family Lawyer: RayAnswers, Lawyer replied 11 months ago

Example

Moral Environment: Both parents shall provide the children with a proper and moral environment. Neither parent will have an overnight guest of the opposite sex to whom that parent is not related by blood or marriage while the children are present. Neither parent shall consume excessive amounts of alcohol in the presence of the children, nor shall use of illegal drugs be allowed or tolerated in any way.”

I appreciate the chance to help you today.Thanks again

If you can positive rate 5 stars it is much appreciated.

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