Thank you for your new question.
Any sale after the divorce you would likely not be entitled to a share of unless the court awards you a certain amount of that in the marital property settlement
. The ownership of both houses and the entitlement to interests would be something that has to be addressed in the marital property settlement agreement as part of the divorce. If not addressed and sold later then the proceeds become separate property of each spouse. This is part of what I was saying about this being a hotly litigated matter and courts examining all details. This has to be addressed in any marital property settlement.
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