My husband had significant stock options granted to him in…

9 years. Married in 2006, separated in 2015.

I have all the bank statements. I'm going to gather more information and send it to you over the next couple of days. You say we share in the increase in the value over our marriage. I can tell you that there wasn't a significant increase in value from 2006 to 2008. The stocks were worth about $760,000 when we got married, but he could not sell them then, they didn't vest until 2008. The stocks were sold in 2008 for $700,000 and his current account holdings are not in Company X. They are in company A, B,C,D and they have dropped in value over the years. Do we share in the decrease in the value of the account over the marriage? I just want to be sure that he is not entitled to $700,000 when the $700,000 wasn't actually ever realized because of the other poor investments he made. Why does he get $700,000 and I'm left with a $300,000 deficit?

I have reviewed the bank statements and here is a summary of what has transpired over the years:
In 2006 the account was worth $220,000. It contained minimal stock of Company A as he had not exercised the options. In early 2008, he had exercised 15,000 options (bought them out from Company A and paid about ~$200,000 to do so). The account value was up to $1.5MM at its peak in early 2008 but with a $800,000 margin (debt) drawn on it as he had bought stocks in Company B, C, D, using the value of Company A stock as leverage (so net value was 1.5MM-0.8MM = 0.7MM at its peak). In Oct 2008, he sold the Company A 15,000 shares for $950,000. Unfortunately, during the crash in 2008 and he was getting margin calls and he was forced to sell. In the end, the account settled out at a value of $150,000. He claims that he is entitled to a $650,000 exemption because upon the date of marriage, the 15,000 shares were worth $650,000 (after paying option price to company A). But there are no proceeds of $650,000 to trace. The account is only worth $350,000 today. Is he entitlted to $650,000? Thank you.

The account is worth $350,000 now. If he is entitled to a $650,000 exemption where does the outstanding $300,000 come from? It gets taken from our matrimonial assets? That cannot be right.

Our house has only $200,000 of equity in it. My savings which I have kept in a separate account are $400,000. The $650,000 was never real. We never had the money because of the debt he drew on the account. At most he should be only entitled to $150,000, no? I do have a lawyer and I've been told he's not entitled to $650,000. So now I'm wondering who is right. Can you please clarify how the $650,000 exemption is valid? I've been told I've got to track the value of the exemption to present day. I've tracked it to only be worth $150,000. Thank you.