When I purchased my house with my spouse we were common law…

Even though we were common law partners since 2001 and we purchased the house together in 2007, wouldn't everything including the house just be split 50/50 since there was no prenuptial?

We were common law partners in BC, Canada in 2001. I moved from my home in Ontario to be with her. We lived in BC (in her home) until we purchased our home in Ottawa, Ontario in 2007. We got married in Sept 2013, and are not divorced yet. She bought the home in Ottawa, Ontario, for $315k then we remortgaged for more than she bought it for. I contributed for many years (the majority as she worked 15 hrs @ minimum wage), then we remortgaged a second time in April 2014 again. I moved out in April 2015, have still paid half the mortgage, 1/4 of the utilities, half the house insurance and a portion towards the property taxes and I have not claimed occupation rent yet. So she has been living off of me essentially for free for over a year now.If it only looks at contributions, I might be screwed even though I contributed more for over 4 years in the house in Ottawa, Ontario.and even though we had to remortgage twice and I have been paying for her and her two adult children to live there for over a year for freeI really need some advice on how to proceedNeither of us have used a lawyer yet, but the house is for sale and her and her two adult daughters are making it very difficult to sell at timesthe house has been for sale for over 6 months and she refuses to get a realtor

I am worried from what you said above that I will not get much out of the house because she put $315k into it when we bought it even though we had been common law partners for 6 years by that time, then married in 2013. I always thought if you were common law for so long and married that the house would be shared 50/50, but from your answer if she pursues this legally I might get screwed.If the house is half mine, how can she take more if we are married?

I was just reading about common law in Ontario and it states that "In common law relationships, the matrimonial home is treated similar to any other property, which means that when a relationship ends, whoever is on title gets the home. If both parties are on title, then the home is split equally. If a couple cannot decide what to do with the home, a judge will often order it sold and then the proceeds are split."We are a married couple, not just common law so I have more rights than that in Ontario.and we are both on the mortgage and title and it has been this way for 9 yearsAre you a Canadian family law lawyer?

Ok, thanks for the explanation.