Hello, here is the scenario, me and my wife have been married…

Hello,
here is the scenario, me and my wife have been married for 4 years, she owned a property before we married then two years later we moved into a new property together, she used the equity from previous property as a down payment on new place along with money from line of credit. we are separating amicably, I understand that the funds she had from the previous sale she will get back once we sell our current house, I have no problem with that, it totals $20,000 cad...the thing is there will be a penalty for her to transfer to a new mortgage for her to buy a new house and she is stating in the agreement that she will use the money from the equity of the house sale plus any legal fees and realtor fees from the sale to buy her new place and that if there is anything left we will split 50/50, and I end up with no home, and virtually no money......we have about 30,000 in equity on our current house, plus whatever we make from sale, average 10-15000,
My question is, I understand that she can get back her deposit, although most of it was line of credit which I helped pay back, also I paid half of both mortgages and outstanding bills and debts for 4 years. What would be the right way to divide the sale of the property fairly?
Can she pay for her new house out of the sale of our current house and then divide what is left 50/50 as it does not seem right...
If you have any questions regarding this please feel free to ask.

Regards,

Richard.