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Hi, does an individual have to be specifically named by their

Customer Question
personal name, for libel to...
Hi, does an individual have to be specifically named by their personal name, for libel to be valid?
Submitted: 5 years ago.Category: Business Law
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6/4/2012
Business Lawyer: Attorney Arcadier, Attorney replied 5 years ago
Attorney Arcadier
Category: Business Law
Satisfied Customers: 1,106
Experience: Contract questions and Incorporation questions answered.
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Attorney Arcadier : No. Not if it is clear who the person is.
Attorney Arcadier : I hope you found my answer helpful, please click on the GREEN ACCEPT button above for my answer OR the HAPPY SMILEY FACE. This is necessary for me to be paid for my work and so that I can get credit for assisting you. Your question will not close, and you will still have the opportunity to follow-up if needed. Leaving a bonus and positive feedback is not required, but doing so is certainly appreciated!If you have additional questions, please keep in mind that I do not know what you already know or don't know, or with what you need help, unless you tell me. Please consider that I am answering the question or question that is posed in your posting based upon my reading of your post and sometimes misunderstandings can occur. If I did not answer the question you thought you were asking, please respond with the specific question you wanted answered.Also remember, sometimes the law does not support what we want it to support, but that is not the fault of the person answering the question, so please be courteous.Kindly note, sometimes legal answers take more than a few minutes to be properly addressed as the law is esoteric. Indeed, we are dealing with laws throughout the United Estates and applying them to complex fact patterns, SO PLEASE BE PATIENT IT WILL BE MORE THAN “MINUTES” IN SOME CASES BEFORE YOU GET A RESPONSE, BUT BE ASSURED YOU ARE NOT BEING IGNORED.There can also be a delay of an hour or more in between my answers because I may be helping other customers or taking a break.
Customer:

A colleague of mine and I maintain a couple of faith-based blogs. Another individual, a priest, today took one of the blog posts and ripped it apart, publicly, on his blog. But not only. He accused us of various things, none of which are true. He did not mention us by name, but we are the registered users of the blogs with Wordpress. To what extent is this able to go to court? In fact, he even challenged us to take him to court...

Customer:

He also took our post and reposted on his blog, when both our blogs are copyrighted (we have ensured this) under US copyright law

Customer:

He also used and published personal information that I gave him privately in an email...

Attorney Arcadier : If he is using your copyrighted material for profit or gain, then that is actionable. If a third party believes the falsehoods against you as a result of what the priest said, then that is actionable in court. I see no other claims.
Customer:

yes third parties are already believing what he is saying, it is evident from their responses in his combox

Customer:

Also, we are in MA while he is in NC - would this be actionable in NC or MA?

Attorney Arcadier : Its actionable wherever you incur damages.
Customer:

its on the web, so reputation damages are everywhere - would it be actionable in both states?

Customer:

Is he also liable for having divulged personal information publicly, which was given to him with the understanding that the info remain private?

Attorney Arcadier
Category: Business Law
Satisfied Customers: 1,106
Experience: Contract questions and Incorporation questions answered.
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Business Lawyer: Attorney Arcadier, Attorney replied 5 years ago
Its actionable in either state, but must pick one or the other. All claims need to be brought where you chose to file. No, no lawsuit for printing info you provided to him via email.
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