If I recieve a reduncy payment of £110000 is the tax calculated as follows:0-£30000 (tax free)£30001 - £67401 (20%)£67402 - £110000 (40%)
Province/Country relating to question: UK
Hi.It depends when you get it. If it is added to your final salary payment, then you might pay more tax than will ultimately be due at 40% and 50%, if any, depending on what you have earned to date in the tax year. This is because of the way the PAYE system works. You only have a certain amount taxable at each of the 20% and 40% tax rates each month so if a payment such as a redundancy payment exceeds those thresholds, then some of it will be taxed at 50%. Assuming you start another job and hand the P45 to your new employer, you will gradually get back the excess tax deductions through your salary.If the redundancy payment is made post P45, it will be taxed in isolation using an 0T Month 1 tax code. So, of the taxable element of £90,000, £2,864 will be taxed at 20%, £9,636 will be taxed at 40% and the balance will be taxed at 50%.If you do not intend to or do think you will get another job in the 2012/13 tax year, you can apply for an in year tax repayment using form P50.Let me know if you have any further queries.
Thanks for the reply but I am now even more confused! I'll try and explain a bit more.
Basically my partner had no income at all so therefore paid no tax for the 4 years she was on unpaid special leave. The redundancy payment of £120,000 ( 2010 / 2011) was the only money received and she has not entered any other employment since. In my eyes she should only have to pay tax of around 25k (first 30k tax free, next 37400 @ 20% and the remainder @ 40%) rather than the approx 42k she is being asked for?
When was the payment received?
The payment was recieved 31 August 2010.
Thanks.Do you have a tax calculation from the tax office? If so, can you tell me how the tax office has calculated the tax and what it shows as having been deducted at source by your wife's former employer. Had you informed me that this payment was made in 2010/11 originally instead of posing the question as a what if, I would not have given you the answer I did. The rules changed on 6 April 2011.
Im sorry but I dont have the tax calculation to hand but I know that nothing was deducted at source by the employer, it was a straight payment to my wife. Thanks
Thanks. Assuming it was a redundancy payment, the first £30,000 should have been tax free. That leaves £80,000. The personal allowance for 2010/11 of £6,475 is deducted from that leaving £73,525 taxable. The first £37,400 is taxable at 20% (£7,480.00) and the balance of £36,125 is taxable at 40% (£14,450.00) which gives a total liability of £21,930.00.Without knowing what the Revenue have done in the calculation I cannot comment any further I'm afraid. You can either let me know when you get home or call the tax office and ask how they arrived at their figures.Let me know if you have any further queries.TonyTax41011.5478013889
Thank you - I will get the information and reply later on. Many Thanks
Many thanks for your help yesterday. My partner explained everything to the tax office and the correct calculations have been done. You have made her (and me for that matter) much relieved.
Many thanks once again
That's great news.
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