Many thanks, Sam
Sorry to be dense but I don't quite understand your last paragraph. If, say our employee's last day of work was 31st March 2010 and we paid her 3 months notice, in advance, i.e. effectively employed until the end of June, how does this effect the dating of P45 and issue of same, please?
So.......is it cleaner to not pay the notice in advance but to pay as separate payments for April, May, June?
(You will deserve a bonus for this one)!