UK Property Law
Get UK Property Law Questions Answered by Experts
No. as they have an "amicable" agreement, and she was in such a hurry to remarry (5 days after absolute) there was no time. Apparently.
Recent similar properties have sold on the same street for 120k. I believe their mortgage is approximately 100k . However, the house is in a poor state of repair (partly finished bathroom, garden a mess, no carpets in places)
His name has not been, nor ever will be on my morgage, but even if we marry, am I correct in thinking it does not automatically become a "marital asset".
Also does it make any difference that his ex wifes new husband is non UK resident?
DISCLAIMER: Answers from Experts on JustAnswer are not substitutes for the advice of an attorney. JustAnswer is a public forum and questions and responses are not private or confidential or protected by the attorney-client privilege. The Expert above is not your attorney, and the response above is not legal advice. You should not read this response to propose specific action or address specific circumstances, but only to give you a sense of general principles of law that might affect the situation you describe. Application of these general principles to particular circumstances must be done by a lawyer who has spoken with you in confidence, learned all relevant information, and explored various options. Before acting on these general principles, you should hire a lawyer licensed to practice law in the jurisdiction to which your question pertains.
The responses above are from individual Experts, not JustAnswer. The site and services are provided “as is”. To view the verified credential of an Expert, click on the “Verified” symbol in the Expert’s profile. This site is not for emergency questions which should be directed immediately by telephone or in-person to qualified professionals. Please carefully read the Terms of Service (last updated February 8, 2012).