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No. as they have an "amicable" agreement, and she was in such a hurry to remarry (5 days after absolute) there was no time. Apparently.
Recent similar properties have sold on the same street for 120k. I believe their mortgage is approximately 100k . However, the house is in a poor state of repair (partly finished bathroom, garden a mess, no carpets in places)
His name has not been, nor ever will be on my morgage, but even if we marry, am I correct in thinking it does not automatically become a "marital asset".
Also does it make any difference that his ex wifes new husband is non UK resident?
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