UK Property Law
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Who has he applied to please?
He has gained approval from the local planning department at the council
This is a limited company which we the residents have sourced and appointed
Does it matter that they applied before the land was officially transferred over to the homeowners or is it who owns the land when the work is to be done/
The homeowner who has applied for the permission is a relative of the original developer and has applied under the developers name , however he purchased the house from the developer to rent it out, we believed that this makes his ownership no different to ours as the property was purchased from them the same as we all did. Have they been very clever and used a possible loophole or does it still not matter?
Thanks just to summarize then, as long as our title deeds state that we are to own and maintain the piece of land in question, we can via our appointed management company instruct the applicant not to enter upon that land to carry out the work? There is majority support on this, 2 residents don't mind, is that enough to stop proceedings and if it is is there a formally named notice to serve or just a letter informing them not to proceed?