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The tenancy agreement has it clearly written in "NIL" (by the landlord) in the space left blank for a deposit amount. There is no further documentary evidence.
I am actually on the point of ending the tenancy and vacating the property so my landlord wants me to bring the rent up to date (as he sees it) before I leave. Could this initial overpayment be construed as a deposit even though the tenancy agreement says NIL?Would the courts take the view that as it is customary practice to have a deposit in such arrangements, that this will override the tenancy agreement?
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