I own a leasehold flat (not a retirement flat with age restrictions) which does not permit 'sub-letting', however the lease does not state that the flats must be 'owner occupied' either. I do not want to rent the flat out, but a financially dependent family member would like to live in the flat whilst I am living elsewhere. There would be no tenancy agreement in place and no rent charged. Does this fall within the definition of subletting?
Optional Information: Province/Country relating to question : England
Thanks for your question. Please remember to rate my answer SMILEY FACE OR ABOVE so that I am credited for my time.No.Sub-letting would indicate some form of rental agreement and rent being paid.This is not happening and therefore no - would not be considered subletting. Please remember to click *** SMILEY FACE *** or above so that I am credited for my time. The question does not close and you can ask follow ups. Important: If you feel the need to rate as one of the lower two scores, it counts as negative feedback so please reply to me via the REPLY with any further questions you may have. I will be happy to assist you further.
Experience: Called to the Bar in 2007
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