Recent Feedback
About 10 years ago I bought a flat on my own with a mortgage which is still just in my name but about 8 years ago I (re-)married. We are now about to let this flat out. In order to allocate 50% of the rental income to my wife for tax purposes is it necessary to change to a joint mortgage (or add her as a joint mortgagee on the existing one, if that is possible) and/or change the deeds title to include her or in law is a spouse automatically deemed a 50% stakeholder in the property regardless of the title on the deeds/mortgage?
Optional Information: Province/Country relating to question : England Already Tried: searching for articles by lawyers and the Inland Revenue on this specific scenario, which I would have thought extremely common nowadays, but alas to no avail.