we are both payees towards the mortgage but the actual payments is made through my wife's account
If there are no dependent children the starting point is 50-50.
That then gets adjusted depending on time married and need toprovide for children and who has them and unequal inputs.
For example a girl with nothing marries a millionaire and getsdivorced after 12 months. She wouldn't get 50%
If they had been married for 40 years but never worked she isstill unlikely to get 50% but would get a substantial chunk.
If he wasn't a millionaire and she worked and contributed, after40 years she would get 50%, maybe more.
It isn't an exact science or calculation. The fact that a housemay now be in one name only matters not a jot. If one party put all the equityin, say from an old house, that will adjust the split in their favour,diminishing as time goes on.
"With all my worldly goods I thee endow" doesn't work inlaw!.
This may be useful http://www.bbc-law.co.uk/divorce-finances-faq.php
Pensions also go into the pot.
There is a possibility of aliability for spousal maintenance, maintenance paid to keep a spouse , asopposed to children. Although most commonly paid from husband to wife, that isnot necessarily the case. Spousal maintenance is based on both incomes, abilityto earn money, previous lifestyles and most importantly, need. It is not aboutequalising incomes. There is no exact formula, but these links will give somereading..
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