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Yes. Because the property is jointly owned with my ex wife's brothers, both my solicitor (ex solicitor) and the judge said it was outside the scope of the divorce and would need to be handled separately under the appropriate property law if required.
Many thanks for the answer, before I rate your performance and close the question could you answer two subsidiary questions:
Do I have to put the property on the market before I go to court and ask for an order of sale?
Will the fact I could be seen to make my aging ex mother in law homeless go against my chances of enforcing an order of sale?