Yes. Because the property is jointly owned with my ex wife's brothers, both my solicitor (ex solicitor) and the judge said it was outside the scope of the divorce and would need to be handled separately under the appropriate property law if required.
Many thanks for the answer, before I rate your performance and close the question could you answer two subsidiary questions:
Do I have to put the property on the market before I go to court and ask for an order of sale?
Will the fact I could be seen to make my aging ex mother in law homeless go against my chances of enforcing an order of sale?
DISCLAIMER: Answers from Experts on JustAnswer are not substitutes for the advice of an attorney. JustAnswer is a public forum and questions and responses are not private or confidential or protected by the attorney-client privilege. The Expert above is not your attorney, and the response above is not legal advice. You should not read this response to propose specific action or address specific circumstances, but only to give you a sense of general principles of law that might affect the situation you describe. Application of these general principles to particular circumstances must be done by a lawyer who has spoken with you in confidence, learned all relevant information, and explored various options. Before acting on these general principles, you should hire a lawyer licensed to practice law in the jurisdiction to which your question pertains.
The responses above are from individual Experts, not JustAnswer. The site and services are provided “as is”. To view the verified credential of an Expert, click on the “Verified” symbol in the Expert’s profile. This site is not for emergency questions which should be directed immediately by telephone or in-person to qualified professionals. Please carefully read the Terms of Service (last updated February 8, 2012).