The Spanish company would first have to issue a claim against you for the monies owing. Once judgement is obtained they would then have to enforce it against you and your assets, this could include registering a charge against your property or an order for sale and could also result in their making investigations in to whether you have effectively defrauded them by siphoning off your assets to trusted persons so that they cannot enforce their debt against it.
I presume that your brother would not be paying full market value if any for the transfer, if this is the case then it is fairly obvious that the transaction is one at an undervalue which in effect defrauds your creditor. The prices listed in the transfer deed are recorded on the land registry title to each property so they could easily find out.
The 'consent' I was referring to is the consent of the lender who provided you with your mortgage (if you have one on the UK property). No transfer can be registered at the land registry without this.
What about "deed of gift"? How does that work? Is it only possible if there is no mortgage?
Yes, a mortgage are a first legal charge. over the property. This means very little can be done with the registered title of the property without their consent, certainly nothing relating to the ownership of it.
There really isn't a way around it I'm afraid and your best option is to engage with the Spanish lender on the issue to try and resolve any arrears issue that arises.
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