How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site.
    Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask Thomas Your Own Question
Thomas, Lawyer
Category: UK Law
Satisfied Customers: 7435
Experience:  BA (Hons), PgDip, Practising Solicitor
Type Your UK Law Question Here...
Thomas is online now
A new question is answered every 9 seconds

I split up with my partner - there are no children involved.

Resolved Question:

I split up with my partner - there are no children involved. The house is in joint names can I make him sell or buy me out.
Submitted: 6 years ago.
Category: UK Law
Expert:  Thomas replied 6 years ago.



Thanks for your question.

First of all, if you and you partner presently hold the house jointly (as joint tenants) then each person's share would pass to the other upon death regardless of any direction made in any Will. If this is not what you want then you should sever the joint tenancy by using Form SEV from the Land Registry (you will have to send it to them and if you have any questions about completing the form you should call their customer service number - they are very helpful):-

You will then hold you interests as tenants in common, meaning that your respective shares will pass according to their wills or under the intestacy rules. Your partner need not sign the form provided you follow the instructions.

If you leave and your partner stays in the property then you can force the sale of the property by making (or posturing to make) an application to Court. If your partner cannot demonstrate sufficient finance to receive a mortgage offer to buy you out and transfer the equity in to his name then this may be your only option. A local solicitor would be able to do this for you and these orders are seldom refused by the Court.

In the absence of any express agreement there is presumption that the proceeds of sale are split equally, however if either party contributed more the financing of the purchase or has maintained the majority of the mortgage then this will be taken in to account and they will receive more of the proceeds of sale. It is usually better to negotiate and settle unless one party is being particularly unreasonable in their demands.

If this has been useful please kindly click accept so that I may be rewarded for my efforts. It will be gratefully received and you will be free to ask follow up questions.

Kind regards,


Thomas and other UK Law Specialists are ready to help you

Related UK Law Questions