My mother has a right to reside at the house as she owns half the property regardless. The provision does not intend exclusivity but merely states uninterrupted. I am under the impression that having a benefical interest by way of my fathers will gives me the licence to occupy the property.
Rehousing is difficult due to a lack of ID.
Thank you for your reply. I was under the impression that "without interfence" would grant her exclusivity.
Can you also clarify why you have interpereted her chances of convincing a court that proper provision has not been provided for, as likely to be successfull when she owns half the property already and has more in her bank accounts than my father. She also owns half and an eigth of both other properties in Morocco and a further eigth in another property in Morocco.
My father changed his will shortly before his death to stop our mother from evicting us, his childern and carers, from our home due to her contunually trying to do so when he was dying. Does this mean his wishes will not be allowed ?
My mother has lived in the house also, but did not care for my dad and was abusive towards him which caused us to have to intervene and take over my fathers care as he needed 24hr care during the last 6 months of his life.
My mother has also been arrested for assaulting my sister and i and is going to court, but yet has been alllowed to return to the home and assault me again.
She has played the system by taking out a non-mlestation order against me ex-parte, which was discharged at court on my return date,due to the undertakings.
Thank you for your help it is really appreciated, even if not exactly what i wanted to hear. I suppose there is not a great deal we can do about it. Am i correct in thinking we have to prove the provision does not infere exclusivity or is this already taken as being so. In other words who would the onus be on to prove what the intentions of the will are concerning the word uninterrupted ?
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