UK Family Law
UK Family Law Questions Answered by Verified Experts
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A marriage of your length is classed as a long marriage for the purposes of determining the financial settlement of the matrimonial assets pursuant to divorce. There is a presumption that each party retains a 50% share in the assets of the marriage, this can be rebutted so that one party receives greater than 50% if (most commonly and to a greater extent) there are minor children of the marriage who are to reside with one resident parent or (to a much lesser extent) if there is a large disparity between earning capacities of the parties or where one requires more in order to cope with the financial burden of living with a health condition.
If these do not apply to you then one would not expect a court to depart far at all from 50% of the matrimonial assets. This means that she would be entitled to argue that 50% of the value of the shares be taken in to account in determining what is a fair financial settlement. It does not mean that she would get the shares obviously, but the value would be included in coming to a calculated settlement.
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my question is about the rights of a term cohabiting