Thanks for your question.
If you are to divorce then the house, or the proceeds of sale of the house, will form part of the matrimonial assets (together with all other assets/liabilities of you and your wife) upon which you will have to achieve a financial settlement over in the process of your divorce.
In marriages of your length there is a presumption that each party shall be entitled to an equality (50/50) of the matrimonial asset pool, the Court is generally very reluctant to depart from equality unless there are children who will be cared for post-divorce by one party, where there is a significant imbalance in earning power between parties or where one party requires more money in order to maintain a reasonable standard of living (eg. because of ill health).
It is a matter for negotiation between divorcing parties (or their solicitors) if one is insisting on receiving a larger share than the other and sometimes people settle on the basis that they do not wish to incur the expense, stress and time needed to litigate.
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