The following was what was read to me :-
An analysis of your current role was carried out against the global transformation plan, and it was identified that your role is no longer required in the new global delivery model because the work will be more efficiently and cost effectively carried out by the EMEA CIO team under the new delivery model. Because we identified that in the new global delivery model we no longer need anyone carrying out the kind of work which you carry out in the UK, all employees carrying out that work in the UK, including you, are provisionally at risk of redundancy. There was no need to carry out a selection process.
Sorry - your answer has confused me.
I understand that the client / my employer might have issues, and that is separate to me.
My question is - can my employer make me redundant under the wording i gave you when i am the ONLY person that does the job, and then replace me with someone else within the UK to perform the same role.
I was under the impression that to make a ROLE redundant (and therefore the sole person performing the role) that NOONE else is allowed to perform the role in its original form
In my instance I would be made redundant and then another UK based person (who never performed the role before) would carry out the EXACT same role. is this actually legal ?
Thank you for the answer which is in-line with what i thought. Could you point me to the piece of legislation that your answer is based on. The reason for this is that i would be starting a unfair dismissal case should the employer not drop the compulsory redundancy, and your answer / guidance would be what i would indicate to any legal expert that i use to defend myself. I have been employed by this employer since 2000.
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