need a Texas landlord tenant lawyer to define "bonfide" under Texas law as it applies to a local agreement covered by the Protection of Tenants at Foreclosure Act(while this state is still part of the union).
Texas law allows oral leases as I understand it. Why is Fannie Mae and their law firm asking me to give them a written form of a verbal lease or proof of payment when I have informed them that it is in exchange for value that I contributed to the property?
I'm familiar with this federal law with regards ***** ***** situation but maybe somebody more close to Texas can weigh in on the matter for me
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