My wife and I purchased a home with our daughter, all 3 on the deed as "joint tenants with full rights of survivorship" about a week before our daughter got married and moved into the home with her new husband and baby. We told our daughter and husband that if they could refinance the home in the future, they could take over full ownership of the home. That is the only agreement we had with our children. In over 4 years since the purchase neither daughter or husband has been able to qualify to refinance. Now, they are divorcing and the son-in-law is claiming he has ownership in the home because our daughter was on the deed. Does he have any right to any legal ownership? He is preventing the finalization of the divorce saying that if we don't give him thousands of dollars he is going to include the house in divorce court. Putting our daughter on the deed was not a result of any agreement with her or her future husband. My wife and I did that anticipating it would help with refinancing for them when they refinanced.
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