This question is for Fred/Law Pro: Does the fact that there is no written consent prove that there was no informed consent? The doctor failed to put down in writing what type of surgery he was going to do and on what part of the prostate he was going to do it to. Without a specific consent form from the doctor, the hospital scheduled all 10 of the TURPs, the 2 bladder canal incisions and the one green light laser blasting. The hospital's "Agreement to treat" were the only forms my husband signed. In 2008, although it was not in writing, the doctor did explain that he was going to do a green light laser operation. However, a different doctor came to my husband's bedside and said: "In the middle of the green light we decided to do a TURP instead because the prostate was too large". My husband didn't have a chance to object because he was unconscious. In the entire time between 2008 and 2013, the doctor did not give any indication of anything that went wrong after all these procedures. In September of 2014, a new doctor showed us with an endoscope, that there is a 1/4" gash to the bottom of his prostate. This is causing a stricture at the base of the prostate which won't allow any urine to pass without using a straight catheter. This question is for Fred/Law Pro: Does the fact that there is no written consent prove that there was no informed consent? What is the standard procedure for a doctor in urology. Is it different from doing cataract surgery where doctor tells which eye and all the risks? With no written consent will the court still try to establish what either doctor or patient remember about it?
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