my exhusband resides in CA and has lived there since 2006, however we were not legally divorced until 2010, but were separated at the time he moved to CA. I just received a bill in the mail from irs adressed to him with my address of which he has never lived with me. The bill is for past taxes not paid for 26,000. i have always filed my taxes separately even when we were married. I have also never lived in the state of california. I also have a case pending where he has been taking money out my private checking account for his car insurance, summing up to be 5,303 dollars. My question is, is there any way that the IRS can come after me for this money he owes beings we were still legally married at that time?
Country relating to Question: United States
State (if USA): Louisiana
spoke to a lawyer in louisiana and he said he did not know CA laws, I also called the IRS office in Ca and they were no help the lady was very ugly to me, even went as far as asking me how I make my money
Your question was "is there any way the IRS can come after you", and unfortuantely, the annswer is "YES", they can. Since your husband is a resident of CA and you are a resident of LA, these are both Community Property states. That means the debt of one spouse is also the responsibility of the other, UNLESS you can show that you had separate funds and accounts.
What you need to do, is to file an INNOCENT SPOUSE claim form with the IRS. This is different than INJURED SPOUSE. An Innocent Spouse is someone who is unfairly tagged with the Tax Liability of a spouse or former spouse because they had no knowledge of the tax return and were not involved with the income or the return preparation. This is different than INJURED spouse.
Click this link to the IRS webpage for Innocent Spouse claims
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