OK then, your question is a little confusing. You state that the warrant of execution was NOT executed, yet in the same breath you say that the property was sold in execution. The price obtained in the execution sale (which had to take place after the warrant was properly executed) was not enough to cover the judgment debt, leaving a balance due on the judgment debt.
So, the short answer is that yes, the creditor can still execute the judgment for a period of 30 years after judgment was obtained. In this instance, it would appear that the creditor applied for a new (fresh) warrant of execution 14 years after the initial sale in execution for the balance of the debt owed to the creditor.
This is perfectly normal and completely legal.
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I hope this answered your question.
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