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Its part of a fees agreement, which I dont fully understand. The lawyer in question explained it to me when i signed it, but now is reneging on what he explained and saying that it means something else. Herewith the agreement, i need to know what exactly it means:
"WHEREAS (lawyer) and the client wishes to enter into a fee agreement. This fee agreement is not a new agreement but seeks to state the agreement which the parties have entered into in relation to a labour court matter XXXXX. The parties agreed to the following:
1.1. In the event that the client is successful with the matter at the labour court,she agrees to pay (lawyer name) 30% of the compensation awarded to her.
1.2. The 30% shall be calculated on the gross amount awarded to her before tax.
In the event that the costs are awarded in favour of the client (lawyer name) shall tax the bill of costs for his own account."
According to the verbal agreement we had, and what he explained this means was that on the total award (including costs) he would take 30% as a fee, and that the taxing of the bill was purely to ascertain what the bill amout would be. Now he is saying that this document i signed means that he takes 30% of total award PLUS costs that were awarded.
I am feeling duped and mired by legal jargon and need help please.
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ok, this bill has been "taxed" at the labour court and i have the revised bill, ie what his original charge was vs. what the taxed bill is done by cost consultants and agreed to be the labour court. So what does that cover exactly?
But im still confused:
Does the section in the agreement, "In the event that the costs are awarded in favour of the client (lawyer name) shall tax the bill of costs for his own account" mean that i am liable to pay his account, or the taxed bill? Or am i supposed to pay for the difference between the two? Even though we supposedly have a contingency fee agreement??
I have a meeting with him next week and he is going to talk me in circles again
you have been EXCEPTIONALLY helpful, thank you SO much.
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