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CalAttorney2, Lawyer
Category: Real Estate Law
Satisfied Customers: 10206
Experience:  I am a civil litigation attorney with experience representing HOAs, homeowners, businesses and others in real estate matters.
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I have been renting a house years. from 2001 to 2010. i paid

Customer Question

i have been renting a house for 15 years. from 2001 to 2010 . i paid rent and paid all utilities. then 2011. 2012. 2013 2014 2015. i have paid all insurance on the house, also i have paid all property taxes . my question is do i have legal ground on ownership or my toal be considered a down payment. all monenies paid by me for 2011,2012,2013,2014, 2015 to currently still resideing at same property and paying 2000.00 a month .this year . i have not been remimbursed of any monies ihave spent on the home
Submitted: 3 months ago.
Category: Real Estate Law
Expert:  CalAttorney2 replied 3 months ago.

Dear Customer,

Thank you for using our forum. My name is ***** ***** I hope to assist you today.

No, if you are renting the property you do not have an ownership interest in the property.

(Even if your rental agreement includes paying the property taxes).

To have an ownership interest you would have to have a purchase agreement with the land owner that gave you the right to buy the property (for tenants that are buying the property from the landlord this is commonly referred to as a "lease to own" "land sales contract" or "carrying paper" - but all of these contracts are very specific written contracts that will replace the lease agreement).

You do not have a right to reimbursement for the money you spent as part of your lease agreement.

If you are paying money on behalf of your landlord without any agreement for reimbursement (so if your landlord failed to pay their taxes but you paid it for them for some reason), this is going to be deemed a "gift" and you cannot force the landlord to repay you.