How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site.
    Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask TJ, Esq. Your Own Question
TJ, Esq.
TJ, Esq., Attorney
Category: Real Estate Law
Satisfied Customers: 11959
Experience:  JD, MBA
9373668
Type Your Real Estate Law Question Here...
TJ, Esq. is online now
A new question is answered every 9 seconds

About five or six years ago my husband's

Customer Question

About five or six years ago my husband's parents passed away. My two sisters-in-law added my husband's name to the deed of that house without his knowing it. We live in Southern California. The sisters-in-law had also taken out a loan against that house to take care of my mother-in-law at a memory care facility. Now, they are suing my husband because they want to sell the house to pay off their loan. They can no longer make the loan payments. We asked them to provide the paperwork that shows my husband's name that was added to the deed. No response or cooperation. How can they have added his name to that deed? Can they actually sue my husband? It is really crazy.
Submitted: 9 months ago.
Category: Real Estate Law
Expert:  TJ, Esq. replied 9 months ago.
Hello and thank you for the opportunity to assist you. My name is ***** ***** I will do my very best to answer your legal questions. It is certainly possible that your husband could be deeded property without his knowledge. The grantee on a deed does not have to sign it. Only the grantor has to sign it. So your husband could certainly own property with his sisters. Moreover, if the sisters want to sell the property, and your husband does not, then they would indeed have to file a partition lawsuit against him. The bot***** *****ne is that a co-owner of property does not have to continue as co-owner if she doesn't want to. So, if all parties cannot agree to sell, then the court will order the property be sold and the proceeds divided accordingly. Does that answer your question? Please let me know if you need clarification, as I am happy to continue helping you until you are satisfied.