I'm in the process of selling a Mobile Home
in Pinellas Park that I have owned and paid for since 1981. There is no mortgage
on it. I bought it for my parents who passed away in 1985 and 1989. My older sister, who had a Soc Sec qualifying lived there until her death in 2012. When my dad passed in 1989 he left his deed share to my younger brother in order to protect my sister's ability to live there incase something happened to me. My brother never paid anything towards the place and in 2004 he told me he wanted to turn his part of the ownership to me recognizing that there were responsibilities to that ownership. He signed a deed over to me. within a few mnths he and his wife a=had to give up their home, he was on Soc SEC disability and hadn't worked for years . She was working but not making much money.
I hadn't recorded the deed as yet since I went home to Massachusetts and I suggested that they move into the 2 bdrm Mobile Home. They did in 2005 and I allowed them to live there rent free to me, until April 19, 2014 when they qualified for a Senior Citizens apartment
and moved out leaving the home in serious need of repair and upgrading.
I put it on the market, as is, for less than the cost of a share in the park which I was told was $40,000. I had paid $15,000 for the share in the 1980s. It didn't sell because of the poor condition so my oldest daughter and I spent about $20,000 in repairs and upgrades from April 2015 to July 2015 and I put it back on the market. When I told my brother that we were going to do that work his wife sent me an email saying "don't think you're going to charge your vacation against the sale of the house." They had been told by the realtor that since they were still on the deed that they would get a check for 50% of the sale price.
This set off a series of back and forth emails in which I asked what they were thinking since they had lived rent free for 9 years there and moved out of there own accord leaving the place in terrible condition. I told the wife that my Brother had signed over a deed to me in 2004 admitting that he hadn't contributed anything towards the home. Although ,at that point I didn't even remember where that deed was, I was just trying to make the point that her husband, my brother, Tom knew that and knew that I didn't record it so hat they could live there (Renting is not allowed in the Park). Assuming I was going to record the deed his wife emailed me saying so hat your plan , you can go to hell, in so many words.
Now I have a sale after 2 years scheduled to close Monday April 25th and the Title insurer tells me that the deed I recorded in April 2015 is no good because the wife didn't sign off on it and under Florida law, even though she's not on the and never was that she has the rights of ownership And this has something to do to with the Florida Homestead
About 90% of he proceeds of the sale is to repay a loan that I needed to take out from a friend for which has been paid down to $14,500 to repair my home in Massachusetts in order to get it reinsured; $11,500 to 2 of my 3 daughters who helped us pay our mortgage last year and almost $20,000 to my oldest daughter for loaning me the money for the repairs last year.
I am going to lose the sale, which is the only offer in 2 years. is there anything that I can do to remedy this situation.