Real Estate Law
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I need to ask a few questions before I comment..
Is there anything in the will that states the one beneficiary is able to deduct their contributions to the home over the years off the top of any value and be reimbursed for that?
Is this a situation where the one beneficiary has been living in the home for an extended period of time?
Was the deceased the only one on the deed to the property?
If so, why would the beneficiary invest that money into investments in a property that they didn't own?
Ok, thank you for that information...
A couple more questions..
Was this your spouse?
Are you on the deed at all?
Ok, if marital money was used to pay for the mortgage all along, I would opine that you would have grounds to claim that the house was converted to a marital asset with you owning 50% of it automatically. This is because if money that was earned during the marriage was used to pay for the house all along, then that was marital money that was owned equally by both you and wife. So even though the legal title was in her name, you paid for half the house with the marital money.
The remaining 50% would be divided according to the will or you could claim your "spousal elective share" which is the first $150,000 plus 1/2 of anything over that amount.
So that could end up with you essentially owning the entire house if you got half of it $120K and then the first $150K of the estate assets.