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If you do this, it still could be subject to the Texas Uniform Fraudulent Transfer Act (TUFTA). TUFTA section 24.005(a) provides that a transfer made or obligation incurred by a debtor is fraudulent as to a creditor, whether the creditor's claim arose before or within a reasonable time after the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred, if the debtor made the transfer or incurred the obligation (1) with actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the debtor; or (2) without receiving a reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer or obligation, and the debtor: (a) was engaged or was about to engage in a business or a transaction for which the remaining assets of the debtor were unreasonably small in relation to the business or transaction; or
(b) intended to incur, or believed, or reasonably should have believed the debtor would incur, debts beyond the debtor's ability to pay as they became due. Tex. Bus. & Com. Code Ann § 24.005(a)(1), (2) (West 2009).
If those don't apply, then he could do this, giving you the property, and it would be free from a lien being put on the property.
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