Real Estate Law
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Thank you for the information and your questions. You don't say whether or not you and this other party have a written agreement that you would pay her back any or some of the downpayment on the house. That could be an issue as far as splitting any profit from the sale of the house. If there is nothing in writing and you both are list as joint tenants on the deed (or similar ownership that connotes 50/50 ownership), then when you sell the property the law would normally find that any profit or loss be split 50/50. In other words, without a written agreement that states otherwise, it doesn't matter how much each party contributed. What matters is how the Deed is titled.
So, no, she would not be responsible for any bills unless that written agreement I mentioned exists, unless you have to bring money to closing. In that case, she owes half.
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I wanted to touch base with you and make sure that you did not have any follow up questions for me from the answer I provided to you on the 29th. For some unknown reason, the Experts are not always getting replies or ratings (at the top of the question/answer page you are viewing or in the pop up box for this question), which is how we get credit (paid) for our work, that the customer thinks have gone through. In your case I received neither. If you are having technical difficulties with reading, replying or rating, please let me know so that I can inform the Site administrator. Please note that Site use works best while using a computer and using either Google Chrome or Firefox.
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