The deductions were related to property taxes, property repairs from tenants who damaged the property, HOA fees. I dont have a contract. There were 18 properties that I managed and was billed for.
Sorry, your response did not address my question.
I'm employed by a company who acquires/forecloses on properties through delinquent taxes.
Initially, our goal was to obtain the property and then flip it. However, during the expansion of our business, we found that property owners were interested in leasing the home back from us. At which point I was handed the property management torch. With no written agreement, other than a verbal agreement that I would make 5% on collected income, I proceeded. Once before I've been paid in full my 5% commission... with NO said deductions. But NOW, I'm being billed for them.
How is it possible that I have to pay for the owner's overhead charges with NO agreement in place? Is that legal?
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