Hi the incident has escalated. The Realtor is saying that I never told her my husband was on the title until after the buyers offer was accepted pending all the inspections and appraisal. That is not the truth. I have a text from her saying, O you were right he is on the title. She acknowledged the recording of the deed, with his name, on April 11th, 2013, and still entered into a contract on April 13th, 2013.
She just sent an e-mail saying the agent (the mother of the buyer and the friend of our agent) said the buyer has already purchased new appliances (they were not taking possession of the house until the end of June) and they have ordered an appraisal.
Today my husband talked to our agent informing her that as a result of no knowledge, presence, participation, and most importantly signature on the contract that this entire matter began on an illegal note, or at minimum a non-binding contract.
The buyer had until Sunday to return the inspection and it mysteriously appeared in my e-mail tonight.
Our questions are: do we have a legally binding contract with only one spouse's signature?
Can we talk to you directly about this case?
We were told by other Realtors to send a letter to the Board of Realtors to report this incident. Should we?
We look forward to any help you can give us.
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