We may have received an 'interest in an investment', but this 'interest' cannot be used to pay our current tax liability...i'm just curious, how does the IRS propose we pay these taxes...with our good looks?
Do you have any advice for me?
One more question...
This transaction happened in 2006. The spec home still has not sold. There is no profit left in this investment and it will probably generate a loss. If the loss is generated in 2009, can we go back and apply it against that commission we received in 2006 which bought us the interest in the investment to begin with?
Tax Preparer
MBA, CTEC Registered, CPA Firm Experience with Business and Individual Tax Returns and Issues