I regret to disappoint you...
As long as you owned a house any time withing three years of the purchase date - you would not be qualify for the credit.
The fact of your divorce is irrelevant for credit eligibility determination.
If your former spouse owned the house is also irrelevant
According to instructions for the form 5405 - http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/f5405.pdf
You are considered a first-time homebuyer if:
You (and your spouse if married) did not own any other main home during the 3-year period ending on the date of purchase.
If - for instance - you purchase the house today - Aug 14, 2009 and your previous house was sold of transfered to your former spouse on Aug 13, 2006 - you qualify for the credit.
If - however - your previous house was disposed on Aug 15, 2009 - you do not qualify, but in order to qualify - you may postpone the purchase of a new home.
If you do not qualify fo r the credit - your new spouse - as long as you are married will not qualify as well.
Sorry if you expected a different answer.
Let me know if you need any help.
Tax Preparer
Personal Investment, Tax Preparation