I am not a judge or even a lawyer, but my interpretation is below. Is it legally logical and solid?
My employer (business or organization) does over $500,000 worth of business a year. Therefore, he is subject to FLSA which says he must pay at least time and a half for overtime at night and weekends. Consequentally, if he does not pay this amount but rather 10% of the base rate (not even the minimum wage) he is in violaton of Federal law specificially FLSA. Is that your interpretation and opinion as well?
Lawyer
Since 1983