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linda_us
linda_us, Master's Degree
Category: Multiple Problems
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Experience:  Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
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For Linda Try to get these to me in about 12 minutes Question

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For Linda
Try to get these to me in about 12 minutes

Question 1

Barriers to entry:
A. do not affect the number of firms in an industry.
B. exist only in perfectly competitive markets.
C. restrict the number of firms in an industry.
D. limit output in an industry.

Question 2
If a firm in a perfectly competitive market experiences a technological breakthrough:
A. other firms would find out about it eventually.
B. other firms would find out about it immediately.
C. other firms would not find out about it.
D. some firms would find out about it but others would not.

Question 4
In 2009 Circuit City closed its stores. If we assume this was a short run decision, then the most likely explanation for it is that the price of a typical product sold at Circuit City stores was:
A. greater than the average total cost of producing the toy.
B. equal to the average total cost of producing the toy.
C. less than the average total cost of producing the toy, but greater than the average variable cost.
D. less than the average variable cost of producing the toy.

Question 6
In a perfectly competitive long run constant-cost industry, an increase in market demand causes:
A. an increase in quantity, a decrease in price, and no change in profit in the long run.
B. an increase in price, quantity, and profit in the long run.
C. an increase in quantity, no change in price, and no change in profit in the long run.
D. a decrease in price, a decrease in quantity, and a decrease in profit in the long run.

Question 7

Suppose a perfectly competitive firm can increase its profits by increasing its output. Then it must true that the firm's:
A. marginal revenue is less than its marginal cost.
B. price exceeds its marginal revenue.
C. price exceeds its marginal cost.
D. marginal cost exceeds its marginal revenue.
Submitted: 2 years ago.
Category: Multiple Problems
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
linda_us, Master's Degree
Satisfied Customers: 7105
Experience: Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
linda_us and other Multiple Problems Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
for linda:
Here are 5 quest, try to do in 10 minutes, I will send a second batch right after this one
Suppose a contractionary monetary policy raises nominal interest rates. If this is the case, it follows that the contractionary monetary policy must have:
A. reduced expected inflation.
B. increased expected inflation.
C. increased expected inflation more than it reduced real interest rates.
D. increased real interest rates more than it reduced expected inflation.

As financial markets develop new and complex financial instruments, the Fed has:
A. more control over the long-term interest rate.
B. less control over the long-term interest rate.
C. no control over the short-term interest rate.
D. full control over the short-term interest rate.

Who determines U.S. monetary policy?
A. Congress.
B. The President.
C. The Internal Revenue Service.
D. The Federal Reserve.


If the Fed simultaneously reduces the discount rate and the required reserve ratio, the money supply will:
A. contract.
B. remain unchanged.
C. expand.
D. take on a value that cannot be determined from the information given.

Which of the following is not directly affected by monetary policy?
A. The money supply.
B. The banking system.
C. The availability of credit.
D. The budget deficit.




Customer: replied 2 years ago.
When the Fed decreases the reserve requirement, the money supply:
A. expands and the money multiplier contracts.
B. expands and so does the money multiplier.
C. contracts and so does the money multiplier.
D. contracts and the money multiplier expands


If the Federal Reserve reduced its reserve requirement from 6.5 percent to 5 percent. This policy would most likely:
A. increase both the money multiplier and the money supply.
B. increase the money multiplier but decrease the money supply.
C. decrease the money multiplier but increase the money supply.
D. decrease both the money multiplier and the money supply.

When the Fed sells bonds, the Fed:
A. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.
B. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
C. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
D. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.

If the Fed funds rate rises above the Fed's target range, the Fed should take:
A. a defensive action and sell government bonds.
B. a defensive action and buy government bonds.
C. an offensive action and sell government bonds.
D. an offensive action and buy government bonds.


Suppose the Fed funds rate is above the Fed's target range. The Fed will:
A. buy bonds.
B. sell bonds.
C. increase the reserve requirement.
D. increase the discount rate.



When the Fed sells bonds, the:
A. Federal funds rate increases.
B. reserve requirement falls.
C. discount rate increases.
D. discount rate decreases.



The Federal Reserve kept interest rates low between 2002 and 2006 because:
A. they wanted to reduce the value of the dollar and help domestic exporters.
B. they were worried about inflation creeping into the economy.
C. they wanted to avoid deflation and the resulting recession.
D. they wanted to follow the Taylor Rule.







Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.

Click here for solution

I posted the above solution 10 minutes ago but it didn't go through.
linda_us, Master's Degree
Satisfied Customers: 7105
Experience: Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
linda_us and other Multiple Problems Specialists are ready to help you
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
For 12.

C. they wanted to avoid deflation and the resulting recession.

Customer: replied 2 years ago.
Smile
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
for Linda:

Hi linda, can you answer some questions pertaining to Deficits and debts? They are timed so you will have to move fast with them.
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
I am out and typing from my mobile. I won't be able to the assignment for next 2 hrs.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
ok, enjoy your night and lets see if we can meet tomorrow evening around 9:30, does that work for you? In the mean time, I will read the next chapter and do a small take home quiz.
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
Thank you so much. See you tomorrow.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:

you are my #1 tutor Smile , have fun tonight!! Talk with you tomorrow.
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
Thanks for your appreciation. See you tomorrow.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:

Hi Linda:

are you available to help me with some timed questions?
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
I am ready.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:
(12 questions)
Please get these to me in 20 minutes. Please don't leave any blank, thank you.

What makes it possible for a country to maintain a constant debt-to-GDP ratio and still have continual deficits is:
A. positive private savings.
B. trade surpluses.
C. continual inflation.
D. real economic growth.

Deficits may be desirable in the short run if they:
A. help to stabilize the economy when the economy falls below potential output.
B. increase savings necessary for future investment and growth.
C. increase savings necessary for future consumption and demand.
D. help to stabilize the economy when the economy is above potential output.

Suppose that the economy has a structural deficit of $100 billion and a budget deficit of $100 billion. It follows that output:
A. must equal potential output.
B. must be above potential output.
C. must be below its potential output.
D. could be at, above, or below potential output.

One of the reasons government debt is different from individual debt is:
A. government does not pay interest on its debt.
B. government never really needs to pay back its debt.
C. all government debt is owed to other government agencies.
D. the government debt is unrelated to income.

In the formula to calculate the real deficit, which of the following increases the real deficit?
A. A smaller nominal deficit.
B. A lower interest rate.
C. A larger debt.
D. A lower inflation rate.

Which of the following statements gives the correct definition of the real deficit?
A. Real deficit = Nominal deficit + (inflation x total debt)
B. Real deficit = Nominal deficit + (total debt/inflation)
C. Real deficit = Nominal deficit - (total debt/inflation)
D. Real deficit = Nominal deficit - (inflation x total debt)

Debt is measured relative to GDP because:
A. the ability of a country to pay off its debt depends on its productive capacity.
B. the ability to produce output depends on the size of the nation's debt.
C. GDP is always used as a reference point in economics.
D. as long as this ratio remains high, the government will have no trouble repaying the debt.

If the national debt increases in any given year, it follows that the government:
A. sold bonds in that year to finance a budget surplus.
B. bought bonds in that year to finance a budget surplus.
C. sold bonds in that year to finance a budget deficit.
D. bought bonds in that year to finance a budget deficit.

Paying interest on internal government debt involves a:
A. net reduction in domestic income.
B. redistribution of income among citizens of the country.
C. net increase in domestic income.
D. redistribution of income to citizens of other countries.
The U.S. Treasury Department reported that in December 2009 the total debt of the United States was approximately $10.7 trillion. The amount of government debt held by private investors was approximately $5.9 trillion. The difference between these two is debt
A. held by U.S financial institutions.
B. held by foreigners.
C. held by some parts of the government itself.
D. that has been adjusted for the effects of inflation.

Government debt is defined as:
A. a shortfall of incoming revenue under outgoing payment.
B. a shortfall of outgoing payments under incoming revenue.
C. accumulated deficits minus accumulated surpluses.
D. accumulated deficits plus accumulated surpluses.



Use the above table to determine which statement is true
A. 1946 and 1950, the budget was in deficit while in 1948-1949, the budget was in surplus.
B. In 1946 and 1950, the budget was in surplus while in 1948-1949, the budget was in deficit
C. The debt rose each year from 1946 to 1950
D. The debt fell from 1946 to 1950.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
I received the first 5 answers , thank you
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
6 D. Real deficit = Nominal deficit - (inflation x total debt)
7 A. the ability of a country to pay off its debt depends on its productive capacity.
8 C. sold bonds in that year to finance a budget deficit.
9 B. redistribution of income among citizens of the country.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
received 6 through 9,

just need 10 through 12
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
11 C. accumulated deficits minus accumulated surpluses.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
two more
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
10 B. held by foreigners.
12 A. 1946 and 1950, the budget was in deficit while in 1948-1949, the budget was in surplus.
linda_us, Master's Degree
Satisfied Customers: 7105
Experience: Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
linda_us and other Multiple Problems Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:
thank you, XXXXX XXXXX it.

How did you get "A" for 12? I have that in 1946 it was in a deficit -16. That is why I could not find an answer for that one.
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
Budget Def for 1946 = -15.9 and 1950 = -3.2

While for 1948 its +11.8 and 1949 its +5.6

Hence A.
linda_us, Master's Degree
Satisfied Customers: 7105
Experience: Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
linda_us and other Multiple Problems Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
Got it, i mixed up the numbers as I was writting it down. Can you do one more batch?
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
We can start in 10 minutes.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:

let me know when you are ready. I will then send them about 5 to 10 minutes after I hear from you.
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
I am ready.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
Suppose a contractionary monetary policy raises nominal interest rates. If this is the case, it follows that the contractionary monetary policy must have:
A. reduced expected inflation.
B. increased expected inflation.
C. increased expected inflation more than it reduced real interest rates.
D. increased real interest rates more than it reduced expected inflation.

When the Fed increases the reserve requirement, it:
A. expands the money supply because banks have more to lend.
B. expands the money supply because banks have less to lend.
C. contracts the money supply because banks have more to lend.
D. contracts the money supply because banks have less to lend.

Which of the following is an example of a direct expansionary monetary policy action?
A. Raising the discount rate.
B. Lowering the prime rate.
C. Selling bonds.
D. Reducing the reserve requirement.

The defensive and offensive actions of the Fed differ because offensive actions are designed to:
A. tighten monetary policy and defensive actions are designed to ease monetary policy.
B. ease monetary policy and defensive actions are designed to tighten monetary policy.
C. change the current monetary policy while defensive actions are designed to reinforce the current monetary policy.
D. reinforce the current monetary policy while defensive actions are designed to change the current monetary policy.

Monetary policy directly affects:
A. social spending.
B. tax rates.
C. the availability of credit.
D. the antitrust laws.

If the Fed funds rate is below the Fed's target range the Fed should:
A. follow expansionary policy.
B. follow contractionary policy.
C. print money.
D. do nothing.

When the Fed purchases bonds, the Fed:
A. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.
B. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
C. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
D. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.


When the Fed sells bonds, the Fed:
A. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.
B. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
C. reduces the reserves and the Federal funds rate decreases.
D. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.


D. increases the reserves and the Federal funds rate increases.
R
If the level of excess reserves in the banking system drops suddenly, we might expect that the:
A. discount rate would rise.
B. Federal funds rate would rise.
C. required reserve ratio would fall.
D. prime rate would fall.

The Taylor Rule:
A. determines who receives Fed funds.
B. determines the Fed funds rate.
C. is fairly successful in describing Fed policy.
D. is one of the Fed's monetary policy tools.





Customer: replied 2 years ago.
need the others
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
linda_us, Master's Degree
Satisfied Customers: 7105
Experience: Business Analyst and Solution Consultant with over 9 years of experience.
linda_us and other Multiple Problems Specialists are ready to help you
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:

I missed the last batch, the computer is running slowly. Its ok though. Will you be available tomorrow evening for some questions on the Modern Fiscal Problem?
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
Sure, I would be available.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
See you then!
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
for Linda:

Hi Linda, are you available for some questions?
Expert:  linda_us replied 2 years ago.
Yes I am.
Customer: replied 2 years ago.
For Linda:

Please get these back to me in 20 minutes. Please don't leave any blank

As income increases during the recovery from a recession, automatic stabilizers will:
A. increase taxes and increase government spending, increasing the overall size of the government.
B. reduce taxes and increase government spending, accelerating the recovery.
C. increase taxes and decrease government spending, slowing the recovery.
D. reduce taxes on high-income individuals and raise taxes on the poor, increasing economic inequality.


If the economy falls into a recession, automatic stabilizers will cause:
A. tax receipts to fall and government spending to rise.
B. tax receipts to rise and government spending to fall.
C. both tax receipts and government spending to rise.
D. both tax receipts and government spending to fall.

Because automatic stabilizers increase government spending and decrease tax revenue during a recession and have the opposite effect during a recovery, they tend to create budget:
A. deficits throughout the business cycle.
B. surpluses throughout the business cycle.
C. deficits during the recovery phase of the business cycle and budget surpluses during the recession phase.
D. deficits during the recession phase of the business cycle and budget surpluses during the recovery phase.

Crowding out will be less likely to occur if:
A. interest rates rise when the budget deficit increases.
B. interest rates fall when the budget deficit decreases.
C. business investment does not depend on interest rates.
D. business investment depends on interest rates.

Crowding out would most likely occur when:
A. workers lose jobs as a result of anti-inflationary fiscal policies.
B. the federal government engages in bond sales to finance its budget deficit.
C. the Congress enacts budget cuts to balance the budget.
D. tax receipts rise more slowly than anticipated, resulting in the need to cut government spending.

Crowding out is associated with:
A. a reduction in business investment resulting from an increase in government borrowing and higher interest rates.
B. an increase in business investment resulting from an increase in government borrowing and higher interest rates.
C. an increase in private savings caused by higher future tax liabilities when government increases borrowing.
D. a decrease in government spending caused by a shortage of available credit.

The concept of fiscal policy refers to the:
A. running of a deficit or surplus to affect the level of output in the economy.
B. changing of interest rates to affect the level of output in the economy.
C. management of exchange rates to affect the trade deficit in the economy.
D. setting of wage policies by institutions to affect spending in the economy.

Suppose most economists agree that the target rate of unemployment is between 4 and 7 percent. If the actual unemployment rate is 11 percent, then most economists would agree that:
A. both expansionary and contractionary policies are appropriate.
B. expansionary monetary and fiscal policies are appropriate.
C. contractionary monetary and fiscal policies are appropriate.
D. neither expansionary nor contractionary policies are appropriate.

In practice, economists:
A. agree about what the level of potential output is but disagree about what policies are appropriate.
B. disagree about what the level of potential output is but agree about what policies are appropriate.
C. agree about what the level of potential output is and about what policies are appropriate.
D. disagree about what the level of potential output is and about what policies are appropriate.

Which of the following is most representative of the functional finance view of the macroeconomy?
A. The economy is self-regulating and the best thing the government can do to enhance stability is to stay out of the way.
B. Budgets should be balanced. Doing otherwise is morally wrong.
C. The government should decide on tax and spending plans based on their effects on the economy.
D. Crowding out almost completely cancels out any deficit spending, so fiscal policy is likely to be ineffective.

According to a Classical, sound-finance perspective on macroeconomics, if an economy is on an inflationary path, the government should run:
A. a budget deficit and increase spending, which will reduce output.
B. a budget surplus and decrease spending, which will reduce output.
C. neither a surplus nor a deficit since changes in deficit spending do not affect output.
D. neither a surplus nor a deficit since changes in spending affect output.


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