How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site.
    Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask Dr. Mark Your Own Question
Dr. Mark
Dr. Mark, Psychotherapist
Category: Mental Health
Satisfied Customers: 5334
Experience:  Dr. Mark is a PhD in psychology in private practice
50444359
Type Your Mental Health Question Here...
Dr. Mark is online now
A new question is answered every 9 seconds

I will have my son speak to his doctor. I am trying to understand

This answer was rated:

I will have my son speak to his doctor. I am trying to understand from what you said, does this mean a person could have a diagnosis of bipolar 1 and bipolar 2. They could be suffering from both disorders

Hi!

There are two reasons for diagnoses: one is for treatment; the other is for insurance reimbursement. This complicates the discussion. I wish it wasn't so, but it is.

For example, when I bill insurance for treating someone with Bipolar Disorder (BD), they have mostly BD1 codes and then they have some generic BD codes. The generic BD codes are more often what we use for insurance reimbursement because they encompass more symptoms. It's easier. So, you might see your doctor's report that lists a diagnosis that's rather general.

But when we are diagnosing for treatment, we seek to be as specific as we can be so that whoever might treat the patient after us will get the most accurate picture possible. With BD, the most likely scenario would be this:

Assuming that it is determined your son is actually cycling (let's say 5 times a week, more or less) along with the manic state with psychosis he was just treated for. Then, the diagnosis would be "BD1 single manic episode with psychotic behavior and daily hypomanic cycling".

The BD1 would be the main diagnosis because it is more severe if left untreated and uncontrolled. In other words, it would signal that the manic state with psychosis is being treated and when it is under control, the more rapid cycling he's experiencing will be looked at to see if the treatment for the manic states is controlling it as well or if further treatment is necessary.

At this time, I don't know of clinicians who are diagnosing both BD1 and BD2 as concurrent independent disorders. Rather, it is treated as I stated above is my experience.

Okay, I wish you the very best!

My goal is for you to feel like you've gotten Great Service from me and the site. If we need to continue the discussion for that to happen, then please feel free to reply and we'll continue working on this. If the answer has given you the help you need, please remember to give a rating of 5 (Great Service) or 4 (Informative and helpful), or even 3 (Got the job done) button. This will make sure that I am credited for the answer and you are not charged anything more than the deposit you already made by pressing any of these buttons. Bonuses are always appreciated! If I can be of further help with any issue now or in the future, just put "For Dr. Mark" in the front of your new question, and I'll be the one to answer it. All the best, XXXXX XXXXX

Dr. Mark and other Mental Health Specialists are ready to help you

Related Mental Health Questions